Đề thi Học kì 2 Tiếng Anh lớp 10 Hà Nội năm 2022 (7 đề)

Đề thi Học kì 2 Tiếng Anh lớp 10 Hà Nội năm 2022 (7 đề)

Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo .....

Đề khảo sát chất lượng Học kì 2

Năm học 2021 - 2022

Môn: Tiếng Anh 10

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

Đề thi Học kì 2 Tiếng Anh lớp 10 Hà Nội năm 2022 đề số 1

I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently.

Question 1: 

A. global                     

B. greenhouse            

C. energy                    

D. underground

Question 2: 

A. impact                   

B. influence                               

C. negative                  

D. scientist

II. Find the word whose main stress is different from the others.

Question 3: 

A. documentary                      

B. personality            

C. potentially                          

D. limitation

Question 4: 

A. promote                             

B. allow                      

C. system                             

 D. agree

III. Choose the best option to complete the following sentences.

Question 5: Since the appearance of electronic devices, lessons have become more and more _____ and effective.

A. enjoyable                

B. disruptive

C. accessible               

D. inappropriate

Question 6: Do you think there would be less conflict in the world if all people ______ the same language?

A. spoke                      

B. speak    

C. had spoken              

D. has spoken

Question 7: _____ will lead to the extinction of rare animals due to the loss of their habitats, and extreme floods and land erosion.

A. Deforestation         

B. Conservation  

C. Depletion               

D. Protection

Question 8: The Vietnamese government has done a lot to ____hunger and poverty.

A. discriminate            

B. contaminate

C. eliminate                 

D. preserve

Question 9: Global warming has had negative impact ___ our environment.

A. in                            

B. of                      

C. on                          

 D. with

Question 10: To _____is to keep and protect something from damage, change or waste.

A. pollute                    

B. preserve 

C. damage                   

D. deplete

Question 11: In the age of technology, you can _______ advantage of new applications which are very useful for learning English.

A. make                       

B. take          

C. get                          

D. have

Question 12: Drinking water in this area is highly ___________ by waste.

A. pollution                 

B. pollutant   

C. polluted                  

D. pollute

Question 13: This ceremony is known under different names.

A. prestigious              

B. fortunate

C. traditional               

D. numerous

Question 14: Gender differences cannot prevent a person ___________pursuing a job.

A. from                       

B. of

C. on                          

 D. with

IV. Identify ONE mistake among A, B, C or D.

Question 15: Scientists have (A) tried to assess (B) the impact of (C) human activities on the environmental(D).

Question 16: If (A)I passed (B) this exam, I’ll go (C) to the (D) university next summer.

Question 17: All (A) new workers mustn’t (B) have a (C) medical examination(D).

Question 18: Do you remember (A) a (B) name of the hotel which (C) is at (D) the end of this street?

V. Read the following passage and choose the best answers to the questions.

          In many ways, the increasingly rapid pace of climate change is a direct result of the growth of the human population. In the last 100 years, the world population has more than tripled. Obviously, this has meant that the world has needed to produce three times as much food, energy, and other natural resources.

          In addition, the average person uses more energy and natural resources than the average person one hundred years ago, meaning that the rates of consumption are actually much higher than just the increase in population would imply.

            All of these activities: food production, energy usage, and the use of natural resources, contribute to climate change in some way. The greater amounts of oil and other fuels burned to create energy release chemicals which add to global warming. In order to produce more food, farmers cut down trees to gain more land for their fields. In addition, we cut down trees to build the houses needed for a larger population. Those trees are an essential part of controlling global warming.

          In addition to a growing population, the world also has a population that desires a higher standard of living than in the past, and a higher standard of living requires the use of even more natural resources. For example, China is the world’s most populous nation, with 1.3 billion people. Currently, the standard of living for most of those people is far below that of people in first world nations. Therefore, the average Chinese citizen uses far fewer natural resources and less energy than the average citizen of the US or Japan. If every Chinese person attains a first world lifestyle, the amount of energy and natural resources needed in the world will double, even if the standard of living in every other nation on Earth remains the same as it is today.

Question 19: The word “pace” in the passage is closest in meaning to _____.

A. growth                    

B. speed     

C. problem                  

D. pollution

Question 20: The word “consumption” in the passage is closest in meaning to _____.

A. development          

B. usage    

C. population              

D. increase

Question 21: According to the passage, how does food production contribute to global warming?

A. Food production requires that the forests be cleared to create farmland.

B. Food production uses many chemicals which add to global warming.

C. Producing more food leads to growth in the world population.

D. Food production decreases the ability of the air to release heat.

Question 22: According to the passage, how does the standard of living affect global warming?

A. Higher standards of living are better for the environment.

B. First world nations create less population than developing nations.

C. The use of natural resources is directly related to the standard of living.

D. High standards of living lead to increases in world population.

Question 23: Why does the author discuss China, Japan and the United States?

A. To compare the standards of their citizens.

B. To explain why China will not be able to become a first world nation.

C. To explain why the world’s use of energy will need to double soon.

D. To better illustrate the effects of an increase in standards of living.

VI. Fill in each numbered blank with one suitable word or phrase.

Years ago, in their private family role, women quite often dominate the male members of the household. Women were quite (24) _____ to their families. However, the public role of women has changed dramatically since the beginning of World War II. During the war, men were away from home to the battle. As a result, women were in complete control of the home. They found themselves doing double and sometimes triple (25) _____. They began to take over the work of their absent husbands and to work outside. They accounted for 73% of the industrial labor force. Women were forced by economic realities to work in the factories. The women who worked there were paid low wages, lived in crowded and small dormitories. (26) _____, they found themselves a place as active members of society. Women, although they were ruthlessly exploited, became the key to the country's success. The feminist movement seems to have been an important part in the demands (27) _____ women Equal Rights. The movement tends to have a way of changing men and women and their roles in society. It often redefines the role of women in society. Inventions, too, bring progress in society as (28) _____ as to the individual's life. In the late nineteenth century the invention of the typewriter gave women a new skill and a. job outside the home. The Suffragettes in the turn of the century has become a symbol for most women to be engaged in equality.

Question 24: 

A. fascinated                

B. worried

C. dedicated                 

D. interested

Question 25: 

A. duty                         

B. job      

C. requirement              

D. career

Question 26: 

A. Because                   

B. Therefore

C. However                   

D. So

Question 27: 

A. for                            

B. in              

C. with                          

D. against

Question 28:

 A. much                        

B. long     

C. soon                         

D. well

VII. Rewrite the sentences with suggested words.

Question 29: There is no better teacher in this school than Mrs. Jackson.
=> Mrs. Jackson is .........................

Question 30: If she doesn’t water these trees, they will die.

=> Unless..................................

Question 31: The man is a famous actor. You met him at the party last night.

=> The man whom.......................

Question 32: Tom said: “I’m going to visit my grandmother tomorrow.”

=> Tom said that.........................

Question 33: Smoking is not allowed in the hospital.

=>  We .............................

Question 34: It wasn’t Tom in the mall yesterday because he was in the hospital. I’m sure. (can’t)

=> Tom..........................

Question 35: It's possible that Joanna didn't receive my message. (mightn’t)

=>..............................

VIII.There are five questions in this part. For each question, decide whether the statement is True or False. Tick (✓) the correct boxes. You will listen to the recording twice.

	TRUE	FALSE
36. The bride’s sari is traditionally embroidered with gold and silver materials.
37. In India, red is considered the colour of the best luck for the marriage.
38. The bride puts on flowers and jewellery to decorate her hair.
39. The common colours of the groom’s dhoti are white and beige.
40. The groom is not allowed to carry things like a sword.

ĐÁP ÁN

Question 1	C	Question 8	C	Question 15	D	Question 22	C
Question 2	D	Question 9	C	Question 16	B	Question 23	D	Question 36	T
Question 3	C	Question 10	B	Question 17	C	Question 24	C	Question 37	F
Question 4	C	Question 11	B	Question 18	B	Question 25	A	Question 38	T
Question 5	A	Question 12	C	Question 19	B	Question 26	C	Question 39	T
Question 6	A	Question 13	D	Question 20	B	Question 27	A	Question 40	F
Question 7	A	Question 14	A	Question 21	A	Question 28	D

Question 29. Mrs. Jackson is the best teacher in this school.

Question 30. Unless she waters these trees, they will die.

Question 31. The man whom you met at the party last night is a famous actor.

Question 32. Tom said that he was going to visit his grandmother the following day/ the next day.

Question 33. We aren’t allowed to smoke in the hospital.

Question 30. Tom can't have been in the mall yesterday because he was in the hospital.

Question 31. Joanna mightn't have received my message.

Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo .....

Đề khảo sát chất lượng Học kì 2

Năm học 2021 - 2022

Môn: Tiếng Anh 10

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

Đề thi Học kì 2 Tiếng Anh lớp 10 Hà Nội năm 2022 đề số 2

I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others.

Question 1: 

A. diverse             

B. ritual

C. bridesmaid       

 D. decisive

Question 2: 

A. sue                   

B. spend    

C. sure                  

D. pursue

II. Choose the word whose stress is placed differently from that of the others.

Question 3: 

A. limit                  

B. demand

C. research            

D. distract

Question 4: 

A. maintain           

B. perform

C. prefer                

D. offer

III. Choose the best answer among A, B, C or D that best completes each sentence.

Question 5: ________ is a term that refers to the existence of different kinds of animals and plants which make a balanced environment.

A. Wildlife                 

 B. Biodiversity

C. Challenge               

D. Investigation

Question 6: We are talking about the writer ________ latest book is one of the best-sellers this year.

A. who                         

B. whose     

C. which                       

D. whom

Question 7: A child _______ everything he or she wants.

A. must be given           

B. shouldn’t be given

C. mustn’t be given       

D. can be given

Question 8: Wildlife all over the world is                       danger.

A. to                            

B. for

C. with                        

D. in

Question 9: The cinema changed completely at                        end of                    1920s.

A. the/ Ø                     

B. the/ the

C. an/ the                    

D. Ø/ the

Question 10:                     going to the cinema tonight, Lan?

A. Would you like       

B. How about             

C. Why don't we         

D. Let's

Question 11: Jane likes living in a city. She wouldn't be happy if she                   in the country.

A. lived                       

B. would live

C. had lived                

D. lives

Question 12: A new bridge                     across this river since 2010.

A. has built                  

B. have built

C. has been built         

D. have been built

Question 13: She is very beautiful with                  smile.

A. fascinates               

B. fascinating

C. fascinated               

D. fascinate

Question 14: These are the pictures                       my son drew when he was young.

A. who                        

B. whom                    

C. whose                     

D. which

IV. Choose the underlined part among A, B, C or D that needs correcting.

Question 15: My friend lives (A) in a old (B) house in (C) a small village (D).

Question 16: He wouldn't (A) have begun to (B) learn Russian if he knows (C) the difficulties (D).

Question 17: What (A) do you think of cartoon films (B)? I find (C) them interested (D).

V. Give the correct form.

Question 18: The ______loss of land is the result of  severve deforestation. ( MASS )

Question 19: Voice ______is the app which helps some types of smartphone attracts customers. (RECOGNIZE )

VI. Read the passage and fill in each blank with the correct answer.

International Women’s Day takes place every year on 8 March to celebrate the achievements of women worldwide. It started with a (20)          that took place in New York City in 1908 where women went out onto the streets to demand the right to vote, shorter working hours and better pay. Nowadays, it is a global event that is supported by many charities, NGOs, governments and academic institutions.

In today’s world, it may appear that women have all the same opportunities as men. If you watch the news, you will see women astronauts, women prime ministers and women leaders in business. (21)          , if you look at the statistics you will realise that there’s still a long way to go. A report by BBC a few years ago showed that in the UK, women occupied only 30.9% of the most senior positions in areas like politics and business. What is (22)          , latest figures suggest that British women still earn on average 20% less than men. So, although progress has been made since 1908, there is still a lot to (23)          before we see an equal number of men and women in the top jobs and receiving equal pay.

To celebrate International Women’s Day, a lot of special events take place in towns and cities all (24)          the UK. There are exhibitions, theatre shows, talks, walking tours, films, workshops and so much more. All the events are designed not only to celebrate the role of women in society but also to encourage efforts to achieve gender equality.

Question 20: 

A. fight             

B. struggle

C. protest         

 D. disagreement

Question 21: 

A. Therefore     

B. However

C. As a result   

 D. In addition

Question 22: 

A. much            

B. most

C. many             

D. more

Question 23: 

A. do                

B. make

C. give              

D. go

Question 24: 

A. in                 

B. over   

C. of                  

D. around

VII. Read the passage carefully then choose the correct answers.  

       We are all slowly destroying the earth. The seas and rivers are too dirty to swim in. There is so much smoke in the air that it is unhealthy to live in many of the world's cities. In one well-known city, for example, poisonous gases from cars pollute the air so much that traffic policemen have to wear oxygen masks.

       We have cut down so many trees that there are now vast areas of wasteland all over the world. As a result, farmers in parts of Africa cannot grow enough to eat. In certain countries in Asia there is too little rice. Moreover, we do not take enough care of the countryside. Wild animals are quickly disappearing. For instance, tigers are rare in India now because we have killed too many for them to survive. However, it isn't enough simply to talk about the problem. We must act now before it is too late to do anything about it. Join us now. Save the Earth. This is too important to ignore.

Question 25: How are the seas and rivers nowadays?

A. are contaminated                                       

B. cannot be swum in

C. are dirty enough to swim in                      

D. are less dirty than they used to be

Question 26: What do traffic policemen have to do, in one well-known city?

A. They have to cut down many trees.          

B. They don’t take enough care of the countryside.

C. They have to pollute the air.                     

D. They have to wear oxygen masks.

Question 27: Why do farmers in parts of Africa and Asia not grow enough to eat?

A. Because people cut down many trees.

B. Because there are large areas of land that can't be used.

C. Because there is too little rice.

D. Because many trees have been polluted.

Question 28: Wild animals are                     .

A. being protected from natural environment                        

B. so rare that they can't survive

C. killed so many that they can't live in the forests               

D. in danger from extinction

Question 29: What's the best title for the passage?

A. The Environment              

B. Conservation         

C. Save the Earth       

D. Protect the nature

VIII. Rewrite the following sentences with the given words.

Question 30: It wasn’t Tom in the mall yesterday because he was in the hospital. I’m sure. (can’t)

=>......................................................

Question 31: It's possible that Joanna didn't receive my message. (mightn’t)

=>......................................................... 

IX. Make meaningful sentences with the given suggestions.

Question 32: lot /people/ choose/ favorable date/ occasions/ such/ wedding/funeral/ house moving days. //

=>........................................................

Question 33: nowadays/ our lives/ improved/ much/ progresses/ science and technology//

=>...........................................................

X. Listen and put the things that Professor Manson talks about in the order (1 – 7) that you hear them.

Sleeping for exam success

	Order
Question 34: Reasons why the human body needs sleep.
Question 35: A personal memory from the past.
Question 36: The ideal amount of sleep at each stage of life.
Question 37: The average time students in the class sleep.
Question 38: Conditions that improve memory consolidation.
Question 39: When memory consolidation takes place.
Question 40: How the things we learn become part of our long-term memory.

ĐÁP ÁN

Question 1	B	Question 8	D	Question 15	B	Question 22	D	Question 29	C
Question 2	C	Question 9	B	Question 16	C	Question 23	A	Question 34	D
Question 3	A	Question 10	B	Question 17	D	Question 24	B	Question 35	A
Question 4	D	Question 11	A	Question 18	massive	Question 25	A	Question 36	C
Question 5	B	Question 12	C	Question 19	recognition	Question 26	D	Question 37	B
Question 6	B	Question 13	b	Question 20	C	Question 27	B	Question 38	F
Question 7	B	Question 14	D	Question 21	B	Question 28	D	Question 39	G

Question 40-E

Question 30. Tom can't have been in the mall yesterday because he was in the hospital.

Question 31. Joanna mightn't have received my message.

Question 32. A lot of people choose a favorable date for occasions such as wedding, funeral and house moving days.

Question 33. Nowadays our lives have been much improved by the progresses in science and technology.

	Order
Question 34: Reasons why the human body needs sleep.	4
Question 35: A personal memory from the past.	1
Question 36: The ideal amount of sleep at each stage of life.	3
Question 37: The average time students in the class sleep.	2
Question 38: Conditions that improve memory consolidation.	6
Question 39: When memory consolidation takes place.	7
Question 40: How the things we learn become part of our long-term memory.	5

Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo .....

Đề khảo sát chất lượng Học kì 2

Năm học 2021 - 2022

Môn: Tiếng Anh 10

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

Đề thi Học kì 2 Tiếng Anh lớp 10 Hà Nội năm 2022 đề số 3

 I. Listen to the interview and choose the correct answer A, B or C.

Question 1. What is the name of the girl being interviewed?

A. Alice                

B. Ellen           

C. Alex

Question 2. She says we should save water when ______________.

A. washing cars                             

B. cleaning clothes                 

C. taking a bath

Question 3. The girl's second suggestion is about _____________.

A. separating different types of garbage

B. disposing of trash properly

C. having a family clean-up party

Question 4. By recycling paper, we can ___________________.

A. protect the forests                     

B. cut down on waste            

C. save money

Question 5. What does the girl do once a month?

A. She visits a recycling centre.

B. She cleans a neighbourhood park.

C. She collects newspapers.

II. Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently from the others.

Question 6.

A. horoscope                

B. honeymoon

C. income                     

D. money

Question 7.

A. reserve                     

B. conserve   

C. preserve                   

D. desert

III. Choose the word whose stress is put differently from that of the others.

Question 8.

A. popularity                 

B. scuba-diving

C. preservation             

D. economical

Question 9.

A. increase                   

B. perfect

C. object                     

D. police

Question 10.

A. concentrate              

B. similar

C. Vietnamese               

D. interesting

IV. Choose the best answer to each of the following questions.

Question 11. The principle of equal pay is that men and women doing _______ work should get paid the same amount.

A. same                              

B. alike                 

C. similar                            

D. identical

Question 12. All forms of discrimination against all women and girls ______ immediately everywhere.

A. ends                              

B. must end                            

C. musn’t be ended               

D. must be ended

Question 13. UN World Day for Cultural Diversity for Dialogue and Development on May 21^st is a chance to celebrate the cultural diversity of people around us, and find out more about what we have ______.

A. in common                     

B. as usual

C. as normal                       

D. alike

Question 14. There are some things Americans would change, and that_____ people would change is their education.

A. a big                               

B. the

C. a bigger                          

D. the biggest

Question 15. In _____ Netherlands, singing at the dinner table means you are singing to the devil for your dinner – which means bad luck.

A. a                                    

B. the          

C. Ø                                    

D. an

Question 16. Some teachers ____ levels of IT are not very high may resist teaching with electronic devices.

A. who                               

B. they    

C. whose                            

D. their

Question 17. Students can also use word processing applications to ______ their vocabulary.

A. improve                         

B. make

C. store                             

D. spend

Question 18. The garden and islets near the Tien and Hau River are very attractive ecotourism _____ of the region.

A. sights                              

B. destinations

C. views                              

D. scenes

Question 19. If you go to Park Ou Caves in Laos, you _____ thousands of Buddha images and statues which have been deposited herere over centuries.

A. see                                 

B. will see

C. saw                                

D. have seen

Question 20. If tourists _____ rubbish in the river, the water would be cleaner.

A. don’t throw                  

 B. throw         

C. didn’t throw                 

 D. threw

V. Give the correct form of the word in brackets.

Question 21. ______ of hotels, recreation and other facilities often leads to increasing sewage pollution. (Construct)

Question 22. Students can write essay on computers and submit them ________. (electronic)

Question 23. To many _______ street vendors, the success of their day is determined by how it starts and by their first customer. (superstition)

Question 24. Their national ________ is largely dependent on tourism. (economic)

Question 25. It was quite _______ to spend a week on a camping trip with friends in the open air. (relax)

VI. Read the passage and choose the correct answer A, B, C or D to fill in the blank.

     Tourism will always have an (26) ______ on the places visited. Sometimes the impact is good, but often it’s negative. For example, if lots of people visit one place, then this can damage the environment. The question is – how can we (27) ______ the problems without preventing people from travelling and visiting places? The main aim of ecotourism is to reduce the negative impact that tourism has on the environment and local people. The idea is to encourage tourists to think about what they do when they visit a place. It’s great to talk about (28) ______ the environment, but how do you actually do this? There are a number of key points. Tourists shouldn’t drop litter; they should stay on the paths; they shouldn’t interfere with wildlife and they should respect local customs and traditions. Some people see ecotourism as a (29) ______. They say that any tourism needs infrastructure – roads, airports and hotels. The more tourists (30) ______ visit a place, the more of these are needed and, by building more of these, you can’t avoid damaging the environment.

Question 26. 

A. impact              

B. harm

C. affect                

D. control

Question 27. 

A. increase       

B. minimize    

C. go down         

D. understand

Question 28. 

A. protect        

B. protecting

C. to protect    

D. protects

Question 29. 

A. contradicted             

B. contradictory

C. contradiction            

 D. contradict

Question 30. 

A. whom                

B. that 

C. where                 

D. what

VII. Read the passage and answer these following questions.

     Working mothers are the ones who move out of the house for the purpose of earning money and also maintain household chores. Every single woman at home prefers to work in order to balance the financial and the other basic needs of the family. It is now very rare that a girl does not prefer to work and chooses to remain at home as a housewife.

     The children of working mothers become smart and active as compared to the children of non-working mothers. This is because of the fact that the mothers being working have to move out of the house leaving all the household chores intact. The children behind understand their responsibilities and manages to do all their tasks without being dependent on others, thus become smart and active enough.

     The working mothers are now a day helped by their spouse in household chores after returning from work. By seeing the fathers being a helping hand to mothers, children learn good habits and inculcate manners of helping others as well as their mothers, thus in this way good habits are inculcated in them. A working mother also adds to advantage of helping the family financially. It is beneficial as a woman becomes a helping hand to the husband in terms of money. This way family runs in a very smooth way without any financial difficulty and the kids also get the best as parents are able to afford due to a good income level.

     The mothers when work, become an inspiration for their kids as they look up to their mom and say that they aspire to be like their moms in the near future. Working moms not only work but also look after their children without any difficulty. So such kids need to look at others for an inspiration, but they get to see an inspiration at home only. This way, they also learn to do hard work in their life.

Question 31. Why does every woman at home prefer to go to work?

……………………………………………….

Question 32. Why do the children of working mothers become smarter, more active and more independent?

……………………………………………….

Question 33. How can children learn good habits from their fathers at home?

………………………………………………….

Question 34. What financial benefits does a working mother bring to her family?

…………………………………………………….

Question 35. Why do working mothers become an inspiration for their children?

…………………………………………………….

VIII. Rewrite sentences with the same meaning as the first one.

Question 36. People should greatly encourage mothers to work outside the home.

Mothers ……………………………………

Question 37. The biggest expense of a wedding is the reception.

No ………………………………

Question 38. I can see a girl and her dog. They are painting their gate red to get good luck.

I can see ……………………………

Question 39. “Mr and Mrs Pike have just read these newspapers”, Nga said.

Nga said ……………………………………

Question 40. We get lost because we don’t have a map.

If ………………………………………………

ĐÁP ÁN

1. C

2. C

3. B

4. A

5. C

6. A

7. B

8. B

9. D

10. C

11. C

12. D

13. A

14. D

15. B

16. C

17. A

18. B

19. B

20. C

21. Construction

22. electronically

23. superstitious

24. economy

25. relaxing

26. A

27. B

28. B

29. C

30. B

Question 31. Because they want to balance the financial and the other basic needs of the family.

Question 32. Because the children behind understand their responsibilities and manages to do all their tasks without being dependent on others.

Question 33. They learn good habits from their fathers at home by seeing the fathers being a helping hand to mothers.

Question 34. The family runs in a very smooth way without any financial difficulty and the kids also get the best as parents are able to afford due to a good income level.

Question 35. Because they not only work but also look after their children without any difficulty.

Question 36. Mothers should be greatly encouraged to work outside the home.

Question 37. No expense of a wedding is bigger than the reception.

Question 38. I can see a girl and her dog that are painting their gate red to get good luck.

Question 39. Nga said that Mr and Mrs Pike had just read those newspaper.

Question 40. If we had a map, we wouldn’t get lost.

Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo .....

Đề khảo sát chất lượng Học kì 2

Năm học 2021 - 2022

Môn: Tiếng Anh 10

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

Đề thi Học kì 2 Tiếng Anh lớp 10 Hà Nội năm 2022 đề số 4

I. There are five questions in this part. For each question, decide whether the statement is TRUE or FALSE. Tick (✓) the correct boxes. You will listen to the recording twice.

1. A Vietnamese family often includes married sons and daughters in-law, unmarried adult daughters, and grandchildren.

2. In a traditional Vietnamese family, the husband is in charge of the issues outside the home.

3. Individualism is one of the qualities that are encouraged by the Vietnamese family.

4. The women and the children are often the interpreters of the Vietnamese families in the Western society.

5. When women adapt to the Western society more quickly than men do, their authority in the Vietnamese families can increase.

II. Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently from the others.

Question 6. 

A. deplete            

B. device

C. exotic             

 D. challenge

Question 7.

 A. fossil              

 B. session

C. discuss             

D. progress

III. Choose the word whose stress is put differently from that of the others.

Question 8.

A. hunger             

B. police

C. parent               

D. courage

Question 9.

A. eliminate   

 B. disadvantage

C. accessible 

 D. identify

Question 10.

A. diversity           

B. biology

C. degradation       

D. activity

IV. Choose the best answer to each of the following questions.

Question 11. He _____ we could buy or make reusable bags and leave some bags in our bike for shopping.

A. told to us                        

B. said us

C. told us                            

D. says to us

Question 12. Fossil fuels which are non-renewable pollute the air and cause air ______.

 A. contaminate                 

 B. consumption

C. pollution                          

D. solution

Question 13. Texas is _____ to a number of eco-tour companies, and plenty of ranches and resorts.

A. home                              

B. house

C. accommodation              

D. building

Question 14. I have a test to take tomorrow morning. If I ____ free time, I ______ to Ba Vi National Park.

A. have – will go           

 B. had – would go

C. will have – will go          

D. had - went

Question 15. True gender equality ____ when both men and women reach a balance between work and family.

A. can achieve

B. should be achieve

C. can be achieved

D. should achieve

Question 16. Cultural diversity makes the United States a ____ interesting place in which to live for all of its inhabitants.

A. better                             

B. very more

C. so more                         

D. much more

Question 17. In Spain, it is believed to be bad luck to enter ______ room with your left foot.

A. Ø                                  

 B. a

C. an                                  

D. the

Question 18. A teacher can create a classroom blog _____ they post notes and assignments for students.

A. where                            

B. which

C. when                            

 D. whose

Question 19. My youngest son, ______ may be quiet or shy in a classroom, may become active in a social learning situation made possible by digital device.

A. that                                

B. who

C. which                              

D. whose

Question 20. We are looking to find _______ ways to stimulate learning and continually trying to improve the way we teach.

 A. portable and mobile

B. shocking and amazing       

C. new and creative

D. ineffective and inappropriate

V. Give the correct form of the word in brackets.

Question 21. Letting students use their own digital devices in class can improve the _____ experience in many ways. (educate)

Question 22. In our tradition, when people metion “matter of betel and areca”, they are talking about _____ issue. (marry)

Question 23. Reducing gender ______ improves productivity and economic growth of a nation. (equal)

VI. Find out the mistake and correct them.

Question 24. They announced that (A) he had met (B) a number of key (C) figures yesterday (D).

Question 25. You mustn’t (A) fill in this section if (B) you don’t want to (C). It’s (D) optional.

VII. Read the passage and fill in each blank with the correct answer.

Throughout the world there are different (26)_________ for people to greet each other. In much of the world, a handshake is the common form of welcoming and greeting someone. In many countries around the Mediterranean Sea a light kiss on the cheek is the appropriate way to welcome friends and family. It can be a very (27)_________ surprise if you expect to shake hands and get a kiss or a hug instead.

At times, it is difficult to tell what sort of greeting (28)_________ is followed. People may bow, wave another’s arm or even slap the other person on the back. In some places people just smile, look at (29) _________ face and say nothing.

Most people in the world are tolerant of, visitors and don’t mind what travelers do that seems wrong as long as the visitors are (30) _________. A big part of the delightfulness of world travel is experiencing different customs.

Question 26.

A. means           

B. ways

C. methods     

 D. techniques

Question 27.

A. huge               

B. large

 C. big                

 D. great

Question 28.

A. habit                

B. routine

C. custom              

D. tradition

Question 29.

A. each other      

B. the others

C. theirs

D. the other’s

Question 30.

A. sincere        

B. truthful

C. faithful           

D. hopeful

VIII. Read the passage and answer the questions that follow.

Earth Hour is an annual global campaign that encourages people and businesses around the world to switch off electricity at the same time for one hour at the end of March. Organised by the World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF), Earth Hour started in Australia in 2007 when 2.2 million people in the city of Sydney turned off all non-essential lights for 60 minutes. Since then it has grown to a massive global event. In 2013, more than 7,000 cities and towns worldwide participated in this campaign. Every year landmarks and well-known buildings around the world such as the Sydney Opera House and Harbour Bridge, the Petronas towers in Malaysia, the UK Parliament, Buckingham Palace and the Empire State Building take part and “go dark” for Earth Hour. Therefore, Earth Hour has been a symbolic event to make people think about the problems of climate change and show their commitment to protect the planet.

                                                                                         (Adapted from “Earth Hour” by British Council)

Question 31. The passage is mainly about __________.

A. a global competition to save the Earth’s energy

B. a worldwide event to help protect the planet

C. an activity of Sydney people to take place in March

Question 32. The word “non-essential” in the second sentence can be best replaced by __________.

A. unnecessary

B. useless

C. unused

Question 33. The word “it” in the third sentence refers to __________.

A. the city of Sydney

B. a global event

C. Earth Hour

Question 34. Earth Hour was first ognanised in __________.

A. Malaysia

B. Australia

C. the UK

Question 35. Earth Hour is held to raise awareness about __________.

A. the shortage of electricity

B. the problems of famous landmarks

C. a kind of environmental issues

IX. Make meaningful sentences with the given suggestions.

Question 36. Everyone / live / earth / should have / responsibility / reduce / air pollution / protect clean air / our survival/.

=> ……………………………………………

Question 37. He/ not/ know /foreign language/ made/ it /difficult/  him / get /well-paid job/.

=> ……………………………………………

X. Rewrite sentences with the same meaning to the first one.

Question 38. Mai said to Anna, “Don’t buy any products made from wildlife skins.”

=> Mai advised ……………………………

Question 39. The article is about smartphones. They have become excellent study tools.

=> The article is ……………………………

Question 40. Save some money or you won’t be able to buy the house.

=> If …………………………………………

ĐÁP ÁN

1. T

2. T

3. F

4. F

5. T

6. C

7. B

8. B

9. B

10. C

11. C

12. C

13. A

14. B

15. C

16. D

17. B

18. A

19. B

20. C

21. educational

22. marriage

23. inequality

24. D

25. A

26. B

27. C

28. A

29. D

30. A

31. B

32. A

33. C

34. B

35. C

Question 37. He didn’t know a foreign language, which made it difficult for him to get a well-paid job.

Question 36. Everyone living on the Earth should have responsibility for reducing air pollution and protecting clean air for our survival.

Question 38. Mai advised Anna not to buy any products made from wildlife skins.

Question 39. The article is about smartphones which have become excellent study tools.

Question 40. If you don’t save any money, you won’t be able to buy the house.

Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo .....

Đề khảo sát chất lượng Học kì 2

Năm học 2021 - 2022

Môn: Tiếng Anh 10

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

Đề thi Học kì 2 Tiếng Anh lớp 10 Hà Nội năm 2022 đề số 5

ANSWERS for Listening and Reading parts:

1.	6.  _____________________	11.	15.	19.
2.	7. _____________________	12.	16.	20.
3.	8. _____________________	13.	17.	21.
4.	9. _____________________	14.	18.	22.
5.	10. _____________________

I. LISTENING: (2.5p)

 Part 1: Listen to Jan talking to Steve about getting a student travel card and choose the best answer.

1.How is Steve going to go to London?

A. by bus                                  

B. by car                         

C. by train

2. How much is a travel  card?

A. £6                                        

B.£16                              

C.£70

3. Jan will need........

A. some cards                           

B. some photographs      

C. some books

4. Photos in the photographer’s shop are....

A. cheaper                                

B. more expensive          

C. old

5. For the travel card, Jan must take.......

A. a letter                                  

B. her passport                

C. her driving licence

Part 2: Listen to some information about a pop concert and fill in the gaps.

Name of group: Red River   In London. From October 28th  to ................................. 2nd .  (6)   Price of ticket:  £ .........................          (7).   Telephone numer: ................ 0065.       (8)   Between 10 a.m to ........................... p.m.  (9)   In ..................................... Street. (10)

 II. READING: (3.0 points)

Part 1: Read the message and notices and then, choose the correct explanation (1.0 point)  

11.

Peter,                                               When you come back from school, remember to cook dinner. Phone me if you don’t bring the door key.                                             Susan

Why has Susan emailed Peter ?   A. to remind him to do something  B. to give him the door key  C. to let him know that she will cook dinner

12.

All meals HALF-PRICE 5-6 p.m

A. You pay more to eat at this time. B. You don’t have to pay to eat at this time. C. You pay less to eat at this time.

13.

Under 12s swimming course Saturday 10 a.m

A. This is only for students B.  This is only for young people C. This is only for adults

14.

YORK MUSEUM Mon-Fri: £5 Sat- Sun: £2/ Students free

Students do not have to pay to go here A. on Satudays B. At weekends C. everyday

Part 2: Read the passage and choose the best answer for each blank (1.0 point).

 Cuc Phuong, the first national park in Viet Nam, was oficially opened 1960. It (15) ……….. 160 kilometers south west of Ha Noi spanning. Ninh Binh, Hoa Binh and Thanh Hoa provinces Cuc Phuong National Park contains over 200 square kilometers of rainforest. It attracts (16) ………… tourists and scientists. In 2002, nearly 100,000 visitors made their way to Cuc Phuong. Tourists come there to study butterflies, visit caves, hike mountains and look at the (17) ….…. tree. Many come to see the work being done to protect endangered species. According, to scientists, there are about 2,000 different species (18) ……… and 450 species of fauna in the park.

15.

A. is located            

B. is locating           

C. locates                

D. located

16.

A. every                  

B. both                    

C. neither               

D. either

17.

A. 1,000 year old     

B. 1,000 years                            

C. 1,000-year-old                                 

D. 1,000-years-old

18.

A. vegetation           

B. flowers               

C. trees                     

D. flora                      

Part 3: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions(1.0 point)

THE WORLD CUP

World Cup is the most important competition in international football, and the world's most representative team sport event. Organized by Federation International de Football Association (FIFA), the sport’s governing body; the World Cup is contested by men's national football teams which are FIFA members. The World Cup is held every four years (except in times of war), but the elimination rounds of the competition  (which narrows the field of as many as 197 teams down to the final 32 teams) take place over a three-year period, using regional elimination tournaments.

          The “the final tournament” phrase (often called the "Finalists") involves 32 national teams competing over a four-week period in a previously nominated host nation. Only seven nations have won the World Cup Finals. The most recent football World Cup was held in Germany between June 9 and July 10, 2006. The World Cup Finals is the most widely viewed and followed sporting event in the world. The final match of the 2006 World Cup was watched by more than one billion people.

19. Where was the 2006 World cup held?

A. United States              

B. Germany          

C. French              

D. Brazil                   

20. How many national teams take part in the final tournament?

A. 52                              

B. 81                     

C. 197                             

D. 32               

21. What does the “FIFA” mean?

A. Federation International Football Association.          

B. Federation International de Football Associations.

C. Federation International de Football Association.    

D. Federation Internation de Football Association.

22. Which countries have became the champion in the World Cup Finals?

A.West Germany, Argentina, England                                 

B. Brazil and Italy                        

C. Uraguay and France                                           

D. All are correct

IV. WRITING (2,5p)

Part 1: . Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first one

1. No student in the class is smaller than Jonathan.

    Jonathan .......................................................................................................................

2.  He didn’t learn hard so he couldn’t pass the exam.

   If I had ...........................................................................................................................

Part 2: . Write an announcement, using the cues given below

Announcer: The monitor of class 10A Event: the musical performance of class 10A to raise fund for disadvantaged children Place: Mac Dinh Chi school meeting hall Time: 7.30, Saturday, 18th May Ticket price:  20,000VND

..............................................................................................................................................

..............................................................................................................................................

Đáp án

I. LISTENING (2.5 points)

Part 1:     (0.25 point for each correct answer)

1A                               

2.B             

3.B              

4.A             

5. A

Part 2:      (0.25 point for each correct answer)

6. November             

7.  37          

8.  283                  

9.  10          

10. Trinity

II- READING ( 3.0 points)

* Part 1:     (0.25 point for each correct answer)

11A

12C

13B

14B

* Part 2:       (0.25 point for each correct answer)    

15A

16B

17C

18D

* Part 3:      (0.25 point for each correct answer)

19B

20D

21C

22D

III. WRITING:

* Part 1:     (0.5 point for each correct answer)

1. Jonathan is the smallest (student) in the class. .

2. If he had learned hard, he could have passed the exam.

     * Part 2:  1,5 điểm    

  - Nội dung : 0,75

- Sử dụng từ ngữ, câu chính xác: 0,5 điểm

- Đúng cấu trúc đoạn văn  : 0,25 điểm

Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo .....

Đề khảo sát chất lượng Học kì 2

Năm học 2021 - 2022

Môn: Tiếng Anh 10

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

Đề thi Học kì 2 Tiếng Anh lớp 10 Hà Nội năm 2022 đề số 6

I. Phonetic: (1pt)

* Pronunciation

1.

A. photo

B. form

C. of

D. fiction

2.

A. erosion

B. stone

C. hydroelectric

D. impossible

* Stress

3.

A. vegetation

B. destruction

C. variety

D. erosion

4.

A. conserve

B. pollute

C. circulate

D. eliminate

II. Grammar and Vocabulary

A. Fill in the blank with the correct form of the verb in parenthesis (1.5pts)

1. If I (a. know)………………… who he was, I (b. ask)………………… him to marry me.

2. Recently, we (give) ………………… a questionnaire of 100 sentences by our English teacher.

3. She sometimes (buy) ………………… vegetables at his market.

4. I (just, go)………………… out to buy an evening paper.

5. I (remember)………………… this summer all my life

B. Fill in the blank with the correct form of the word in parenthesis (1pt)

1. They are making a film based on the (history) ……………………events that happened in 1975.

2. She has saved a sum of money for her (retire)…………………………………

3. He was ( elimination )………………………………. from the contest in the fourth round.

4. The regulations of the competition will be announced (official) ………………on TV next week.

C.Choose the best answer to complete the following sentences (1.5 pts)

1. About 400 students…………… part in the protest

A. took

B. hold

C. made

D. did

2. In the world cup hosted by Japan and South Korea, Brazil defeated Germany…………………2 to 0

A. with

B. by

C. at

D. on

3. Milk is often added to ………….. tea in ……UK.

A. F/F

B. F /the

C. a/a

D. the/a

4. ………………… do you prefer, love story films or thrillers?

A. which

B. what

C. whom

D. for which

5. It was a really …………………experience. Afterwards everybody was very…………………

A. terrify / shock

B. terrifying/ shocking

C. terrifying / shocked

D. terrified / shocking

6. This park was…………………before World War II.

A. set

B. established

C. located

D. stationed

III. Reading:

A. Choose the best option to fill in each blank (1.25pts)

Nowadays people are more aware that wildlife all over the world is..... (1) ..... . danger. Many species of animals are threatened, and could easily become extinct if we do not make an effort to ..... (2) ..... them. There are many reasons for this. In some cases, animal are ..... (3) ..... for their fur or for other valuable parts of their bodies. Some birds such as parrots, are caught alike , and sold as pets. For many animals and birds, the problem is that their habitat- the place where they live-is disappearing. More land is used for farms, for houses or industry. Farmers use powerful chemicals to help them to grow better ..... (4) ..... , but these chemicals pollute the environment and ..... (5) ..... wildlife.

1.

A. at

B. in

C. for

D. on

2.

A. safe

B. protect

C. harm

D. serve

3.

A. protected

B. extinct

C. called

D. hunted

4.

A. crops

B. fields

C. products

D. herbs

5.

A. wrong

B. spoil

C. wound

D. harm

B. Read the passage carefully and choose the correct answer (1.25pts)

Music influences people in different ways or the same person differently at different times. Music may seem to influence people differently. That is because people can react differently to the music. We are able to apply a choosing process to the music we hear. If someone hates jazz, then a jazz piece with a positive effect will probably not make him feel good. A happy song might appear to make an angry person angrier, yet it is not the music itself that is creating the anger; rather it is the positive effect of the music. The angry person does not want to accept the song's happy feeling: it points out his already existing anger, and makes that anger come to the surface. When a piece of music is played and we are listening to it, our body, mind, and feelings are being affected. The musicians of ancient cultures such as China, India, Turkey and Greece understood the effects of music. In fact, Pathagoras, in ancient Greece, introduced a whole science that concerned them. Because the musicians of these ancient cultures understood these effects, they created music that was positive, uplifting, and beneficial. Once the effects of music are better understood, the next step is to gain a better understanding of the music around us, and what effect it is actually having.

1. The text is about_____.

A. The science of music

B. Understanding music

C. The effects of music on human feelings

D. Music and an angry person

2. Music_____.

A. cannot be chosen

B. affects everybody in the same way

C. affects us in different ways

D. never make us angry

3. According to the text,_____.

A. Everybody likes jazz

B. Jazz always makes us feel better

C. No one likes jazz

D. a very angry person sometimes do not accept music

4. In ancient cultures, there used to be a science that concerned the effects of music in_____.

A. China

B. India

C. Turkey

D. Greece

5. The word "Once" has a close meaning to_____.

A. one time

B. when

C. because

D. if

V. Writing:

A. Correct the mistakes (1p)

1. She asked (A) me what did I think (B) of (C) the performance the previous day (D)..

2. It's (A) impossible (B) for me (C) telling (D). alike to her

3. It wasn't (A) until he had been (B) 32 that he got married (C) to (D). a pretty girl.

4. The video (A) pauses (B) if (C) you press this button (D).

B. Rewrite the following sentences without changing the meanings (1.5 pts)

1.She eats much sugar. She is very fat.

=> If ………….............................................

2. Mary is cutting the cake with a sharp knife.

=> The cake ………………….............................................…

3. We wrote Katie's name on the calendar because we didn’t want to forget her birthday.

=> We wrote ……………….............................................……

ĐÁP ÁN

I. Phonetic: (1pt)

* Pronunciation

1 - C

2 - D

* Stress

3 - A

4 - C

II. Grammar and Vocabulary

A. Fill in the blank with the correct form of the verb in parenthesis (1.5pts)

1. If I (a. know) ……… had known…… who he was, I (b. ask)…………would have asked……… him to marry me.

2. Recently, we (give) ………have been given…… a questionnaire of 100 sentences by our English teacher.

3. She sometimes (buy) ……. buys…… vegetables at his market.

4. I (just, go)……have just gone… out to buy an evening paper.

5. I (remember)……will remember… this summer all my life

B. Fill in the blank with the correct form of the word in parenthesis (1pt)

1. They are making a film based on the (history) ………historical……events that happened in 1975.

2. She has saved a sum of money for her (retire)…………retirement…………

3. He was ( elimination )………….eliminated…. from the contest in the fourth round.

4. The regulations of the competition will be announced (official) ……officially……on TV next week.

C. Choose the best answer to complete the following sentences (1.5 pts)

1 - A

2 - B

3 - B

4 - A

5 - C

6 - B

III. Reading:

A. Choose the best option to fill in each blank (1.25pts)

1 - B

2 - B

3 - D

4 - A

5 - D

B. Read the passage carefully and choose the correct answer (1.25pts)

1 - C

2 - C

3 - D

4 - B

5 - D

V. Writing:

A. Correct the mistakes (1p)

1 - B

2 - D

3 - B

4 - B

B. Rewrite the following sentences without changing the meanings (1.5 pts)

1.If she didn’t eat much sugar, she would not be fat.

2.The cake is being cut with a sharp knife by Mary.

3. We wrote Katie’s name on the calendar so as to / in order to remember her birthday ( in order not to forget her birthday)

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