Đề thi Giữa học kì 2 Tiếng Anh lớp 10 Hà Nội năm 2022 (7 đề)

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Đề thi Giữa học kì 2 Tiếng Anh lớp 10 Hà Nội năm 2022 (7 đề)

Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo .....

Đề khảo sát chất lượng Giữa học kì 2

Năm học 2021 - 2022

Môn: Tiếng Anh 10

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

Đề thi Giữa học kì 2 Tiếng Anh lớp 10 Hà Nội năm 2022 đề số 1

I/ Choose the word which has a different stress pattern from the others

1.

A. present

B. answer

C. perfect

D. increase

2.

A. teacher

B. people

C. water

D. machine

II/ Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest

3.

A. affect

B. wage

C. address

D. talkative

4.

A. gender

B. eliminate

C. women

D. equal

III/ Choose the best option: A, B, C or D:

5. I believe gender ____________ in education starts at home

A. discriminate

B. discrimination

C. discriminator

D. discriminative

6. The Vietnamese government has done a lot to____________ hunger and poverty.

A. eliminate

B. increase

C. protect

D. keep

7. Men are ____________ leaders than women

A. good

B. better

C. best

D. bad

8. Women will be ____________ if they have to do two jobs: at work and at home.

A. exhaust

B. exhausted

C. exhausting

D. exhauster

9. The bride and groom are surely the ____________ people on their wedding day.

A. happy

B. happier

C. happily

D. happiest

10. In the past, the proposal and engagement ceremonies took place 1 or 2 years ________ the wedding.

A. before

B. after

C. while

D. since

IV/ Choose the correct word or phrase- a, b, c, or d – that best completes the passage.

The state of California is working (11)________ goodbye to the gender wage gap. Governor, Jerry Brown has signed the Fair Pay Act, a new law (12)___________ forces employers who pay (13)_________ to a man working the same job as a woman to prove that the pay is based on elements other than gender. It is not just a gender problem – it is a family problem or (14)_________ human problem.

11.

A. to say

B. to inform

C. to greet

D. to welcome

12.

A. what

B. that

C. when

D. why

13.

A. much

B. many

C. more

D. most

14.

A. a

B. an

C. the

D. no article

V/ Read the text carefully, and then choose the correct answer.

These days, most people in Britain and the US do not wear very formal clothes. But sometimes it is important to wear the right thing.

Many British people don’t think about clothes very much. They just like to be comfortable. When they go out to enjoy themselves, they can wear almost anything. At theatres, cinemas and concerts you can put on what you like from elegant suits and dresses to jeans and sweaters. Anything goes, as long as you look clean and tidy.

But in Britain, as well as the US, men in offices usually wear suits and ties, and women wear dresses of skirts (not trousers). Doctors, lawyers and business people wear quite formal clothes. And in some hotels and restaurants men have to wear ties and women wear smart dresses.

In many years, Americans are more relaxed than British people, but they are more careful with their clothes. At home, or on holiday, most Americans wear informal or sporty clothes. But when they go out in the evening, they like to look elegant. In good hotels and restaurants, men have to wear jackets and ties, and women wear pretty clothes and smart hairstyles.

It is difficult to say exactly what people wear informal or formal in Britain and the US, because everyone is different. If you are sure what to wear, watch what other people do and then do the same. You’ll feel more relaxed if you don’t look too different from everyone else.

15. Many British people wear freely when they ___________.

A. attend meetings

B. attend lectures

C. spend their spare time

D. meet their friends

16. Who doesn’t usually wear suits and ties?

A. Lawyers

B. Doctors

C. Drivers

D. Secretaries

17. If you visit an American friend at home in the evening, you may find that your friend wears _____.

A. pretty clothes

B. informal clothes

C. formal clothes

D. dirty clothes

18. If you are in a foreign country, the best way the writer suggests to you is to wear ______.

A. strange clothes

B. pretty clothes

C. as the people there do

D. your native clothes

VI/ Choose the underlined part which needs correcting:

19. In (A) fact, France had a more lower (B) overall medal (C) total than Russia (D).

20. We didn’t realize (A) that it (B) was the most fastest (C) way to go to (D) school.

VII/ Rewrite the following situations with the suggestions below:

21. We must eliminate gender discrimination.

=> Gender discrimination must __________________________

22. Any kind of violence mustn’t be allowed at school.

=> They must not ____________________________________

23. The Nile is longer than any other river in the world

=> The Nile is the ____________________________________

24. Peter is not as studious as Daisy.

=> Daisy is more______________________________________

VIII/ Rearrange these word and phrases into meaningful sentences:

25. active / is / She / less / her / than / classmates.

=> _________________________________________________

26. most / He/ the / polite / is / I / met. / have / man / ever

=> _________________________________________________

27. followed /The instructions / by the students. / strictly / must be

=> _________________________________________________

28. out of / these medicines / must keep/ We / children’s reach.

=> _________________________________________________

IX/ Listen to the text about Education and Gender Equality. Fill each blank with a missing word.

Education helps women win equality.

First, education gives women knowledge necessary for their (29)______. It is impossible for a woman to be a doctor, a teacher or a lawyer with adequate knowledge. Education realizes women’s dreams of having job with the same (30)_________ as men.

Second, education shapes women’s character. It teaches them (31)______ life and develops their abilities to think, analyze and judge. Women with strong characters often make decisions about their own lives without (32)_______ dependent on their husbands.

Finally, education improves women’s position both at home and in society. Educated women are more likely to get well-paid job, earn (33)_______ and become more important at home. They can join political activities and gain important positions as leaders, policy (34)________ or politicians. So we can clearly see education enables women to achieve equality.

ĐÁP ÁN

I/ Choose the word which has a different stress pattern from the others

1. D

2. D

II/ Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest

3. B

4. A

III/ Choose the best option: A, B, C or D:

5. B

6. A

7. B

8. B

9. D

10. A

IV/ Choose the correct word or phrase- a, b, c, or d – that best completes the passage.

11. A. Listen and read. Then repeat the conversation and replace the words in blue

( Nghe và đọc. Sau đó, lặp lại đoạn hội thoại và thay thế các từ màu xanh)

12. B

13. C

14. A

V/ Read the text carefully, and then choose the correct answer.

15. C

16. C

17. B

18. C

VI/ Choose the underlined part which needs correcting:

19. B

20. C

VII/ Rewrite the following situations with the suggestions below:

21. be eliminated

22. must not allow any kind of violence at school

23. longest river in the world

24. studious than Peter

VIII/ Rearrange these word and phrases into meaningful sentences

25. She is less active than her classmates

26. He is the most polite man I have ever met.

27. The instructions must be followed strictly by the students

28. We must keep these medicines out of children’s reach

Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo .....

Đề khảo sát chất lượng Giữa học kì 2

Năm học 2021 - 2022

Môn: Tiếng Anh 10

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

Đề thi Giữa học kì 2 Tiếng Anh lớp 10 Hà Nội năm 2022 đề số 2

I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others: (1M)

1.

A. plays                     

B. reads                   

C. listens                    

D. stops

2. 

A. traveled                

B. stared                    

C. landed                    

D. seemed

3. 

A. chemistry           

B. prepare                     

C. receive                     

D. degree

4. 

A. miss                  

B. little                       

C. child                    

D. listen

Answers: 1. D 2. C 3. A 4. C

II. Choose the best answer. (4M)

5. Andrew _______ the test before so he _______ it very easy.

A. had done/found                                    

B. had done/ had found      

C. did/ found                                            

D. did/ had found

6. I must go now. I promised ________________late.

A. not being           

B.  not to be               

C. to not be          

D. I wouldn’t be

7. I was late for school this morning because my alarm clock didn’t ______________.

A. go on                

B. go off                      

C. go away          

D. go up

8. He often ___________ to work by car everyday but today he __________ by bus.                                                

A. goes/ goes       

B. is going/ will go                   

C. went/ has gone

D. goes/ is going     

9. He’s not really interested in ________________ on the farm.

A. to work              

B. work                              

C. worked                 

D. working

10. He _____________the piano everyday.

A. practise              

B. practises                             

C. to practise             

D. practising

11. The World War II ___________in 1939 and _________1945.

A. begins/ ends  

B. had begun/ ended     

C. has begun/ had ended

D. began/ ended

12. She is interested _________ science. She is a scientist.

A. with                

B. of                               

C. in                      

D. under

13. It takes me 45 minutes to get ready.

A. to go                

B. to prepare                       

C. to wake up             

D. to do

14. Marie Curie was born................November 7, 1867.

A. in.                 

B. from                              

C. at                        

D. on

15. Would you mind _______ some time taking to me after the examination?

A. to open            

B. opening                           

C. open              

D. opened

16. _________do you live? - In a flat, near the university.

A. Where          

B. When                              

C. Who                       

 D. Whom

17. They decided _______ this job.

A. taking              

B. take                                 

C. to take            

D. took

18. _______ money do you earn? – About $45 a week.              

A. How much      

B. How many                       

C. What                      

D. Which

19. Remember _______ the letter for me tomorrow.                  

A. posting            

B. post                         

C. will post                  

D. to post

20. Will you please stop ________________ noise?

A. to make          

B. make                         

C. be made                 

D. making

Answers:

5. A           6. B        

7. B           8. D       

9. D          10. B

11. D        12. C      

13. B        14. D     

15. B        16. A     

17. C        18. A      

19. D        20. D

III. Identify the one underlined word or phrase A, B, C, or D that must be changed for the sentence to be correct: (1M)

21. Before (A) she became a film star (B), she has been (C) a stand-upcomedian (D).

22. Tom watches (A) usually (B) television in (C) theevening (D).

23. She has lived (A) in London for (B) five years before (C) she moved (D) to New York.

24. I spend (A) 20 minutes (B) to read (C) books every (D) day.

Answers:

21. C     

22. A      

23. A      

24. C

IV. Give the correct form of words: (1M)

25. To prepare his (science) ______________ works, Karl often spends whole day in library.

26. “Chip and Dale” is really an ___________________ cartoon. (interest)

27. Please write your name and                                 on the form. (occupy)

28. As a child, he received most of his                                  at home. (educate)

Answers: 25. scientific 26. interesting 27. occupation 28. education

V. Read the passage carefully, then answer the following questions. (1M)

MARIE CURIE  (1867 - 1934)

Marie was born in Warsaw. She studied maths and physics in Paris. She met and married a scientist - Pierre Curie. She had two children but continued her career after they was born. In 1902, she and Pierre discovered a new element called “radium” which was important because doctors could use it to help people with cancer. They were awarded the 1903 Nobel Prize for physics  They continued to work hard and made new discoveries. Marie even continued her research after her husband’s  death in 1906. She became a professor of the Sorbornne. In 1911, she was awarded a second Nobel Prize for chemistry. She died in 1934.

* to be awarded: được trao giải 

29: Where was Marie born?

________________________________________________________________________

30: Where did she meet Pierre?

________________________________________________________________________

31. Why was their discovery important?

________________________________________________________________________

32. When was she awarded a second Nobel Prize?

________________________________________________________________________

Answers:

29. Marie was born in Warsaw.

30. She met Pierre in Paris.

31. Their discovery was important because doctors could use it to help people with cancer.

32. In 1911, she was awarded a second Nobel Prize.

VI. Choose the word or phrase among A, B, C or D that best fits the blank space in the following passage

Gender roles develop (1) ____ internalization and identification during childhood. Sigmund Freud suggested that biology determines gender identity through (2) ____ with either the mother or the father. While some people agree with Freud, others (3) ____ that the development of the “gendered self” is not completely determined by biology, but rather the interactions that one has with the primary caregiver(s).

From birth, parents (4) ____ differently with children depending on their sex, and through this interaction parents can instill different values or traits in their children on the basis of what is (5) ____ for their sex. This internalization of gender norms includes the choice of toys (“feminine” toys often reinforce interaction, nurturing, and closeness, “masculine” toys often reinforce independence and competitiveness) that a parents give to their children. Education also plays an (6) ____ role in the creation of gender norms.

Gender roles that are created in childhood may permeate throughout life and help to structure (7) ____ and marriage, especially in relation to work in and outside home. Despite the increasing number of women in the labor (8) ____, women are still responsible for the majority of domestic chores and childcare. While women split their time between work and care of the home, men in many societies are pressured into being the primary economic supporter of the home. (9) ____ the fact that different households may divide chores more evenly, there is evidence supporting the fact that women have retained the primary caregiver role within familial life despite contributing economically to the household. This evidence suggest that women (10) ____ work outside the home often put an extra 18 hours a week doing household or childcare related chores as opposed to men who average 12 minutes a day in childcare activities.

1.     

A. with

B. through

C. upon

D. across

2.     

A. health

B. fitness

C. identification

D. balance

3.     

A. argue

B. claim

C. discuss

D. debate

4.     

A. acquaint

B. relate

C. interact

D. make

5.     

A. confusing

B. passive

C. native

D. normative

6.     

A. integral

B. exact

C. fact

D. true

7.     

A. offspring

B. family

C. parenting

D. parents

8.     

A. force

B. power

C. strength

D. health

9.     

A. without

B. in

C. despite

D. on

10. 

A. which

B. who

C. whose

D. that

Answers

1.      B

2.      C

3.      A

4.      C

5.      D

6.      A

7.      C

8.      A

9.      C

10.  B

Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo .....

Đề khảo sát chất lượng Giữa học kì 2

Năm học 2021 - 2022

Môn: Tiếng Anh 10

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

Đề thi Giữa học kì 2 Tiếng Anh lớp 10 Hà Nội năm 2022 đề số 3

I. LISTENING (1,0 m)

Listen to each conversation twice and choose the best answer

Question 1: What have they forgetten?

A. a ticket                         

B. a camera           

C. a passport                 

D. a mobile phone 

Question 2: What time does the train go?   

A. 6:15                            

B. 6:50                  

C. 6:10                

D. 6:15

Listen to each conversation twice and decide whether the following sentences are True (T) of False (F).

Question 3: The woman buys a small and round bag.                T                                  F

Question 4: The woman pays thirteen pence for the apples.       T                                  F 

II. PHONETICS (1,0 m)

Choose the word whose underlined part is PRONOUNCED differently from that of the others.

Question 5:

A. parents             

B. brothers            

C. weekends                               

D. feelings

Question 6:

A. dear                            

B. clear                 

C. year                                 

D. bear

Choose the word that has a different STRESS PATTERN  from that of the others.

Question 7:

A. competitor                  

B. participant                  

C. volunteer                                   

D. announcer

Question 8:

A. orphan              

B. fauna                

C. ethnic                         

D. explore

III. GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (2, 0 ms)

Choose the best answer to complete each sentence or replace the underlined words or phrases.

Question 9: Look outside. _______ sky is getting dark. I hope there isn’t going to be a storm.

A. The                                 

B. A                      

C. no article                    

D. An

Question 10: Yesterday afternoon, I went to the post office _______ some letters.

A. sends                               

B. sent                  

C. send                      

D. to send                     

Question 11: _______can he jump? _ About three meters. 

A. How long                        

B. How far              

C. How often                 

D. How much

Question 12: Tents come in _______ shapes and sizes

A. vary                                 

B. variety              

C. various                        

D. variously

Question 13: Scotland met Wales in the final at Twickenham

A. at the end                       

B. in the closing match     

C. in the last match              

D. in the decisive match

Question 14: Jack: “I think in the zoo of the new kind, animals can be protected from dangerous diseases in the nature”.

Peter: “_______”

A. Thank you                      

B. I agree completely

C. I am too                          

D. That’s alright        

Find the underlined part in each sentence that needs correcting.

Question 15: If the airplane tickets are (A) not so (B) expensive, I would fly to (C) Hue for (D) my holiday.

Question 16: The students were (A) interesting (B) in taking (C) a field trip (D) to the National Museum.

 IV. READING COMPREHENSION (2,0 ms)

Read the passage and choose the best answer for each question.

There are many problems that make the Vietnamese movies unable to keep pace with the development of the other countries’ modern movies in the world. First of all, we do not have enough money to buy the most modern machinery and equipment for movie technology. The Vietnamese scriptwriters and filmmakers are not well-paid.They are busy earning money for life. We do not have enough conditions to train filmmakers and actors and actresses. From the dawn of the Vietnamese movie industry, there have been several films that won the world’s recognition. However, our movie industry is still limited compared with many other countries’.

          It is rather sad, but we must say many Vietnamese viewers do not like Vietnamese films. They like ones from Korea, China, and the U.S, so what we must do now is to make as many interesting films as possible.

Question 17: The Vietnamese movie industry is not _______.

A. Well-developed                         

B. Famous all over the world

C. Getting a big annual profit                  

D. All are correct

Question 18: In Vietnam, _______.

A. all the Vietnamese scriptwriters get a big salary               

B. all the Vietnamese actors and actresses are well-trained                   

C. we do not have enough money to equip film studios                   

D. the Vietnamese directors are well-paid

Question 19: Most of the Vietnamese  viewers _______.

A. never see films made in the country                        

B. never go to the cinema    

C. like films from Korea, China and the U.S     

D. never see films from foreign countries

Question 20: To attract film fans, we should _______.

A. make as many interesting films as possible                       

B. not allow films from foreign countries to be shown          

C. pay scriptwriters a good salary            

D. all are correct

Read the passage and choose the best word for each blank.

        Nowadays lots of people drive to large supermarkets to (21) _____ their shopping. These supermarkets have car-parks, so you can buy several (22) _____ of shopping. You can fill your trolley, and then put it to your car. Some people prefer to go to local shops. These small shops are usually (23) _____ than supermarkets. Some towns have an open air market in the center, (24) _____ you can buy fruit and vegetables, but you have to carry your shopping home.

Question 21: 

A. make             

B. take                 

C. have                 

D. do

Question 22

A. shops             

B. pockets             

C. bags                 

D. customers 

Question 23

A. cheaper         

B. cheap                

C. expensive                   

D. most expensive 

Question 24

A. which           

B. where               

C. who                 

D. whom 

PART B: WRITING (2,0 ms)

Rewrite the following sentences with the words given in the way that the rewritten one is closest in meaning with the original one.

Question 25: He didn’t stop working until he felt too tired.

It was not _________________________________________________________ .

Question 26: Cartoon films are interesting.

 We are_________________________________________________________ .

Question 27: I was tired because I stayed up late last night.

If_________________________________________________________ .

Question 28: The children have never made a longer journey than this.

 This is_________________________________________________________ .

Make meaningful sentences with the provided words. Add changes  if necessary.

Question 29: The photograph / invent / Edison /1877.

_________________________________________________________ .

Make a question for the underlined part.

Question 30: There are over 84 lessons in my laptop now.

 ________________________________________________________ ?

Đáp án

A.PHẦN TRẮC NGHIỆM:

1. B

5. A

9. A

13. C

17. D

21. D

2. D

6. D

10. D

14. B

18. C

22. C

3. T

7. C

11. B

15. A

19. C

23. A

4. F

8. D

12. C

16. B

20. A

24. B

B.PHẦN TỰ LUẬN:

25.It was not until he felt too tired that / he stopped working.  

26.We are interested  / in cartoon films.

27.If I hadn’t stayed up late last night / I had gone to bed early last night , I wouldn’t have been tired.

28. This is the longest journey / the children have ever made.

29.The photograph was invented  / by Edison in 1877. 

30. How many lessons are there  / in your laptop now?

Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo .....

Đề khảo sát chất lượng Giữa học kì 2

Năm học 2021 - 2022

Môn: Tiếng Anh 10

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

Đề thi Giữa học kì 2 Tiếng Anh lớp 10 Hà Nội năm 2022 đề số 4

I.     PHONETICS:

Choose a word which has underlined syllable has different sound.

1.

A. cow                   

B. town                      

C. how

D. bowl

2.

A. here                  

B. nowhere                 

C. atmosphere

D. cheers

Choose a word that has different stress pattern.

3.

A. defence             

B. dolphin                  

C. muddy

D. shortage

4.

A. destruction        

B. gestation                

C. submarine

D. resurface 

II.  VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR:  

Choose the best option to complete these following sentences.

5.  Tiny organisms are carried ___________ by the currents like jellyfish.

A.  with    

B. from       

C. along      

D. on

6.  She said that she ___________  you someday.

A.  had visited    

B. would visit       

C. has visited        

D. will visit

7.  Tom ___________  that he never wrote that word.

A.  told     

B. said to    

C. tells        

D. said

8.He came in tired and hungry and badly __________ need of a bath.

A. in                       

B. by                          

C. on                        

D. with

9. The room is being ____________  at the moment

A. was cleaned           

B. cleaned                  

C. cleaning              

D. clean

10.    Try to eliminate fatty foods from your diet.

A. limit  

B. move      

C. get rid of

D. add

11.    A large hydroelectric ____________ was built on the River Danube.

A. dam  

B. power     

C. bank       

D. wall

12.    Every morning, my mother ____________ up at 5.

A. to get

B. gets        

C. will get   

D. got

13.    If I were you, I ____________ that job

A. will apply for        

B. would have apply for     

C. would apply for

D. applied for

14.    If the bookstore ____________ open, I’ll buy some books

A. is       

B. was         

C. will be    

D. would be

15.    This room isn’t very interesting. They _____________ put some pictures on the walls.   

A. will   

B. should    

C. shouldn’t          

D. won’t

16.    A: Would you mind giving me a hand? - B: ___________________________ .

A. That’s a great idea.  

B. No, thanks.    

C. Not at all.         

D. Good bye

17. Sperm whale population is at risk due to hunting.

A. in extinction      

B. on the decrease      

C. in fewness    

D. in danger

18.  Whales are in danger because of the increase in _______________ of other sea animals.

A.  populated   

B. popular   

C. population        

D. populate

19.  A: Shall we play table tennis now ?         - B: ______________________________ .

A.  Sorry. I’m tired.    

B. Congratulation.  

C. You are welcome.                                

D. Not at all.

III. IDENTIFY MISTAKE: Which is incorrect?

20.  Our class (A) is difference (B) from (C) other classes(D).                     

21.  Some (A) parents were satisfying (B) with (C) their children’s examination result (D)

22.  If drivers (A) obeyed the speed limit (B), fewer accidents (C) won’t  occur (D).

IV. READING COMPREHENSION:

Read the text and choose the correct answer for each question below.

Most people are afraid of sharks, but they usually do not know much about them. For example, there are about 350 species of sharks that live in oceans over the world. Ali of the sharks are carnivores, but most of them don't attack people. Some sharks are very small - the smallest shark is about 6 inches long - about as long as your hand. But some sharks are very large. The largest species of sharks may be 60 feet long and weigh 15 tons. Unlike many other kinds of fish, sharks do not have bone. Their bodies are made up of a kind of tough white flexible material (called cartilage). Sharks do not have ears. However, they 'hear’ sounds and movements in the wade. Any sound or movement makes the water vibrates. Sharks can feel these vibrations which help the sharks find food. Sharks use their large eyes to find food, too. Most sharks see best in low light. They often hunt for food at dawn, in the evening, or in the middle of the night.

Nowadays scientists want to learn more about sharks for several reasons. For example, cancer is common in many animals, including, people. However, it is rare in sharks. Scientists want to find out why sharks almost never get cancer. Maybe this information can help people prevent cancer too.

23. According to the passage, sharks ________________________ .

A. are big mammals 

B. usually live in warm water

C. are meat eaters    

D. always attack humans

24. How long is a smallest shark?

A. About 1.5 centimeters.

B. As long as a hand.

C. As one's long hand.                               

D. About 6 meters.

25.    The word 'they' in line 11 refers to_______________.

A.  sounds        

B. vibrations         

C. sharks     

D. movements

26.    Sharks can hunt for food at night because __________________________.          

A. they hear more clearly at night.    

B. their eyes are large.

C. they feel vibrations in the water.            

D. they see well in the dark.

27.    Which of the following is NOT TRUE? A. Sharks often attack people.

B.   Sharks' bodies are made up of cartilage.

C.   Large sharks can weigh up to 15,000 kg.

D.  Sharks can find their food by feeling vibration

28.    It can be inferred from the last paragraph that __________________________.  

A.  sharks are being studied

B.   information about sharks help people cure cancer

C.   the cancer risk among animals is found to be higher

D.  scientists are given permission to catch sharks for their studies          

V. WRITING:

Rewrite the following sentences using the word(s) given.

29.  I don’t have free time, so I can’t go to the cinema with her. (could)

If ________________________________________________the cinema with her.

30.  Study English well, or you can’t go abroad.(don’t)

If you_______________________________________________________ abroad.

31.  Nam said to Mai, “I will visit Ha Long Bay next weekends.” (would)

 Nam told __________________________________________________weekends.

32.  She gave me a gift last Sunday. (gift)

I _______________________________________________________  last Sunday.

Writing: 

Imagine that you will organize your birthday party at your house on 10th March, 2016. You write a letter about 80 words to invite Mai to your party. You can begin with: 

          Dear ……..,

Đáp án

I. PHONETICS:

Choose a word which has underlined syllable has different sound.

1.  D. bowl             

2. B. nowhere  

Choose a word that has different stress pattern.

3. A. defence

4. C. submarine

II. VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR:  

Choose the best option to complete these following sentences.

5.  Tiny organisms are carried ___________ by the currents like jellyfish.

C.   along            

6.  She said that she ___________  you someday.

B. would visit           

7.  Tom ___________  that he never wrote that word.

D.  said

8.  He came in tired and hungry and badly __________ need of a bath.     

A. in                  

9. The room is being ____________  at the moment

B. cleaned                

10. Try to eliminate fatty foods from your diet.

C. get rid of             

11. A large hydroelectric ____________ was built on the River Danube.

A.  dam  

12. Every morning, my mother ____________ up at 5.

B.  gets    

13. If I were you, I ____________ that job

C.  would apply for     

14. If the bookstore ____________ open, I’ll buy some books

A. is

15. This room isn’t very interesting. They _____________ put some pictures on the walls.   

B. should

16.  A: Would you mind giving me a hand? - B: ___________________________ .

C. Not at all.        

17.  Sperm whale population is at risk due to hunting.    

D. in danger

18.  Whales are in danger because of the increase in _______________ of other sea animals.

C. population   

19. A: Shall we play table tennis now ?                                        - B: ______________________________ .

A. Sorry. I’m tired.                                     

III. IDENTIFY MISTAKE: Which is incorrect?

20. B. difference =>  different 

 21. A.  satisfying => satisfied  

22. D.  won’t  occur =>  would occur

Đáp án  / Trang 1

IV. READING COMPREHENSION:

Read the text and choose the correct answer for each question below.

23. According to the passage, sharks ________________________ .

C. are meat eaters                                      

24.  How long is a smallest shark?_______________________________ 

B. As long as a hand.

25.  The word 'they' in line 11 refers to_______________.

C. sharks             

26.  Sharks can hunt for food at night because __________________________.  

 D. they see well in the dark.

27.  Which of the following is NOT TRUE?

A. Sharks often attack people.

28.  It can be inferred from the last paragraph that __________________________.          

A. sharks are being studied

V. WRITING:

Rewrite the following sentences using the word(s) given.

29.  I don’t have free time, so I can’t go to the cinema with her. (could)

=>  If I had free time, // I could go to the

cinema with her.

30.  Study English well, or you can’t go abroad.(don’t)

=> If you  don’t study English well, // you can’t go abroad.

31.  Nam said to Mai, “I will visit Ha Long Bay next weekends.” (would)Nam told Mai that he would visit Ha Long Bay // the next weekends.

32.  She gave me a gift last Sunday. (gift) =>  I was // given a gift last Sunday.

Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo .....

Đề khảo sát chất lượng Giữa học kì 2

Năm học 2021 - 2022

Môn: Tiếng Anh 10

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

Đề thi Giữa học kì 2 Tiếng Anh lớp 10 Hà Nội năm 2022 đề số 5

I. PRONUNCIATION. Pick out the word whose underlined part is pronunced differently from that of the others. (1,0 pt)

1.

concerts              

songs    

prefers    

questions    

1. ……………

2.

scientists     

characters    

sinks       

ships              

2. ……………

3.

disease        

spread        

treat         

meat                 

3. ……………

4.

village       

forget        

bridge       

edge                       

4. ……………

II. Fill each blank with one of the words in the box below. (2,0pts)

musician       decades       trophy      sequence       classical music       tournament     held     cinema

5. ………………………... is traditional music from a particular country, region or community.

6. Van Cao is one of the most well-known …….………………. in Vietnam.

7. The history of ………………………..started in the early 19th century.

8. The cinema developed rapidly in the first two ……………..……….of its existence.

9. A…………………. of pictures could give the feeling of movement when they were set in motion. 

10. World Cup is the biggest ...................................  around the globe. 

11. The 2002 World Cup final was jointly …………..……………. by Japan and Korea. 

12. Brazil won  the final match and became the first team to win the …….............. …. five times. 

III. COMMUNICATION. Match the questions in A with the responses in B. (1,0 pt)

A

B

13. When do you listen to music?

14. Do you like to see the film on TV?

15. Shall we go to the movies tonight?

13. What does she practice singing all day for? 

A- Yes, I like.

B- Yes, that’s a great idea!

C- In my free time.

D- About two hours.

E- To win the singing contest.

F- I like listening to classical music.

IV. Fill each blank with a suitable preposition from the box below. (0,5pts) 

at             from         of          on

17. The old silent films were being replaced by spoken ones …………. the screen, a new cinema form appeared.

18. Music is very much an integral part ……….our life.

V. GRAMMAR. Put the verbs or Choose the correct alternative in the brackets. (1,0pt)

19. Advice is given (in order to/ in order that) …………………….students can choose the best course.

20. We wrote Katie's name on the calendar (so as not to/ so that not )…………………………forget her birthday.

21. This football match is ……………………… (bore).

22. Don't worry about your exam. I'm sure you (pass)………………….........

VI. Read the passage and do the tasks below (2pts)

Of all the films I have seen, “Titanic” is the one I like best. “Titanic” is a tragic love story film. It’s about the singing of a luxury liner (ship) during its first voyage across the Atlantic Ocean. The film is set in American. It is based on the true story of the Titanic disaster that occurred in 1912. The main characters are Jack Dawson and Rose Dewitt Bukater. Jack Dawson is a young and generous adventurer. While on board, he saves Rose Dewitt Bukater from killing herself, and although she is already engaged, the two fall in love. The ship hits an iceberg and sinks rapidly. More than a thousand people die in the disaster, including Jack Dawson.    

A. Answer the questions:

23. What is the name of the film?

………………………………………………………….………..

24. Is it a tragic love story film?

 …………………………………………………………………..

B. Write True (T) or False (F) to these statements: 

25.                  Titanic is based on the true story of the Titanic disaster that occurred in 1921.

26.                  The main characters are Jack Dawson and Rose Dewitt Bukater.

VII. Rewrite the following sentences, beginning with the given words. (2,5pts)

27. Tom / be / interest / my story. 

 ……………………………………………………… 

28. My favorite singer is Hong Nhung.

  Who…………………………………………………….?

29. The staffs are working at weekend. They want to complete the project on time. (using to + Vinfi)

………………………………………………………

30. She went to the bookshop to buy a dictionary. (using so that + clause)

…………..…………………………………………………….

31. She didn’t answer his phone call until he had phoned her the third time.

 It was not until………………………………………………………

ĐÁP ÁN

I. PRONUNCIATION. Pick out the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others. (1,0 pt)

1. concerts            

2. completed         

3. spread     

4. forget      

II. Fill each blank with one of the words in the box below. (2,0pts)

5. …classical music... is traditional music from a particular country, region or community.

6. Van Cao is one of the most well-known ……musician…. in Vietnam.

7. The history of ……cinema…..started in the early 19th century.

8. The cinema developed rapidly in the first two …decades ….of its existence.

9. A……sequence... of pictures could give the feeling of movement when they were set in motion. 

10. World Cup is the biggest ....tournament ...  around the globe. 

11. The 2002 World Cup final was jointly ……held…. by Japan and Korea. 

12. Brazil won  the final match and became the first team to win the ....trophy…. five times. 

III. COMMUNICATION. Match the questions in A with the responses in B. (1,0 pt)

15. C.           14…A..        15…B….     16…E.

IV. Fill each blank with a suitable preposition from the box below. (0,5pts) 

17. The old silent films were being replaced by spoken ones …on…. the screen, a new cinema form appeared.

18. Music is very much an integral part …of….our life.

V. GRAMMAR. Put the verbs or Choose the correct alternative in the brackets. (1,0pt)

19. Advice is given (in order to/ in order that ) …………………….students can choose the best course.

20. We wrote Katie's name on the calendar (so as not to/ so that not)…………………………forget her birthday.

21. This football match is boring (bore).

22. Don't worry about your exam. I'm sure you (pass)…will pass….........

VI. Read the passage and do the tasks below (2pts)

A. Answer the questions:

23. What is the name of the film?

⮲……The name of the film is Titanic. ……….………..

24. Is it a tragic love story film?

⮲ …Yes, it is…………………………………..

B. Write True (T) or False (F) to these statements: 

25.       F      Titanic is based on the true story of the Titanic disaster that occurred in 1921.

26.       T       The main characters are Jack Dawson and Rose Dewitt Bukater.

VII. Rewrite the following sentences, beginning with the given words. (2,5pts)

27. Tom / be / interest / my story. 

 …Tom is interested in my story. ……………………… 

28. My favorite singer is Hong Nhung.

 Who is your favorite singer……………….?

29. The staffs are working at weekend. They want to complete the project on time. (using to + V-infi)

 …The staffs are working at weekend to/ in order to/ so as to complete the project on time. 

30. She went to the bookshop to buy a dictionary. (using so that + clause)

…She went to the bookshop so that/ in order that she could buy a dictionary….

31. She didn’t answer his phone call until he had phoned her the third time.

 It was not until he had phoned her the third time she answered his phone call.

Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo .....

Đề khảo sát chất lượng Giữa học kì 2

Năm học 2021 - 2022

Môn: Tiếng Anh 10

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

Đề thi Giữa học kì 2 Tiếng Anh lớp 10 Hà Nội năm 2022 đề số 6

PART A. GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (2.5ps)

I. Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently from that of the others

1.

A. teams  

B. beats                 

C. defends                      

D.  tours

2.

A. visited

B. decided            

C. handicapped               

D. wanted 

II. Choose the word or phrase -A, B, C, or D - that best completes the sentences or substitutes for the underlined word or phrase.

1.Mark Twain was a famous writer…………books have been translated into many other languages 

A. who                           

B. whom               

C. whose               

D. that

2.  We ............ on a cruise around the Mediterranean to celebrate 10th wedding anniversary.

A. are going to go      

B. will go                   

C. are going                

D. go

3.Nam was an………storyteller. We were……… and laughed a lot.

A. amusing/ amused       

B. amusing/ amusing      

C. amused/amused

D. amused/ amusing

4. I think Manchester United..................a home game this week.

A. will win                    

B. are going to win       

C. are to  win                 

D.  win

5. I just bought________new shirt and some new shoes. ________shirt was quite expensive, but_____shoes weren’t.

A. the/ The/ the                  

B. a /A/ a                      

C. a/ The/ a                   

D. a/ The/ the

6. The school boys are in a hurry ________be late for school.              

A. so that                   

B. in order not to          

C. in order that             

D. so as to

7. Some giant companies tend to buy small firms to expand their business.

A. very big                       

B. very tiny                  

C. small                

D. very small

8. .Anna-“ What are you jogging for?”            Tom-……………………………………….

A.For losing weight                                                            

B.To lose weight

C. Because I lose weight                                       

D. For I will lose weight

PART B. READING (2.5ps)

I.  Read the passage and  decide whether these statements are true (T)  or False (F).

       What kind of music do you enjoy? Some people like going to  classical concerts, and listening to an orchestra. The musicians wear very formal clothes, and the audience is silent until the end of the performance. Perhaps you’re a rock music fan .Rock concerts are often held at football stadiums or in parks in a crazy atmosphere. Everyone shouts, dances to the music, or sings the songs. Traditional music is layed at weddings and parties in many countries. Nowadays, we can easily hear music, of all kinds, in shops, lifts or any other public places. Many people even make their own music at home or play their own music with them whenever traveling. Music is everywhere!

1.        Most people prefer to go to  classical concerts, and listening to an orchestra.

2.        The musicians wear very informal clothes at the classical performance

3.        Rock concerts are often held at football stadiums or in parks in a crazy atmosphere

4.        Everyone shouts, dances to the music, or sings the songs in the rock concerts

5.        Music is popular now.

II. Read the passage and  answer the following questions.

     The FIFA World Cup, occasionally called the Football World Cup, but usually referred to simply as the    World Cup. The championship has been awarded every four years since the first tournament in 1930, except in 1942 and 1946 when it was not contested because of World War II.  

 During the 19 tournaments that have been held, seven nations have won the title. Brazil is the only team to have played in every tournament and have won the World Cup a record five times. Italy which is the current champions, has won four titles. And Germany is next with three. The other former champions are Uruguay, winners of the inaugural tournament, and Argentina, with two titles each, and England and France, with one title each. 

     The most recent World Cup, which was held in Brazil from 12 June to 13 July 2014, was the 20th World Cup.     

1. When was the first World Cup held? 

………………………………………………………………………………………………………….

2.  Did Brazilian team had four titles? 

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

3.  Which team had three  titles

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

4. In the past, in which years wasn’t the World Cup held? 

…………………………………………………………………………………………………. ……

5. Up to 2014, how many World Cup tournaments were held? 

…………………………………………………………………………………………….....................

PART C. WRITING (2.5ps)

I. Complete the second sentence so that it it has a similar meaning to the first one.

1. He didn't return to his native village until the war ended.

It was not................................................................................................................................................

2. Jane wanted to earn some pocket money, so she got a part-time job.

Jane got ..................................................................................................................................................

3.The movie made me bored

I was........................................................................................................................................................

4. They got these letters from their penpals. (Make the question for underlined part)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………....

 II . Write a paragraph of 120  about the film you like watching

Name of the film

Type of the film

Setting

Main characters

Content of the film

Your feeling after watching it

PART D. LISTENING (2.5ps)

 Đáp án

PART A. GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (2.5ps)

I. Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently from that of the others.

1. B. beats

2. C. handicapped

II. Choose the word or phrase -A, B, C, or D - that best completes the sentences or substitutes for the underlined word or phrase.

1. C. whose

2. A. are going to go

3. A. amusing/ amused

4. A. will win

5. D. a/ The/ the

6. B. in order not to         

7. A. very big

8. B. To lose weight

PART B. READING .(2.5ps)

I. Read the passage and  decide whether these statements are true (T)  or False (F).

1.  F

2.  F

3. T

4. T

5. T

II. Read the passage and  answer the following questions

1. (The first World Cup was held ) in 1930

2. No, It didn’t

3. Germany (had three  titles)

4. (The World Cup wasn’t held) in 1942 and 1946

5. 20  (World Cup tournaments were held)

PART C. WRITING .(2.5ps)

I. Complete the second sentence so that it it has a similar meaning to the first one.

1.  It was not the war ended that he returned to his native village

2 .Jane got a part-time job to earn some pocket money 

3.  I was bored with The movie

4 From whom did they get these letters?

Or Who did they get these letters from?

II. Writing

1. Organization: (0.25 point)

+ correct form of a paragraph 

+ coherent

2. Content: (1 point) 

* Successfully fulfill the task

+ Say the Name of the film

+ Type of the film

+ Setting

+ Main characters

+ Content of the film

+ Feeling  

3. Language: (0.25point) 

+ appropriate vocabulary

+ correct grammar

+ punctuation / spelling

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