TOP 10 Đề thi Học kì 1 Tiếng anh 12 năm 2023 có đáp án

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TOP 10 Đề thi Học kì 1 Tiếng anh lớp 12 năm 2023 - 2024 có đáp án

Đề thi Học kì 1 Tiếng anh lớp 12 có đáp án đề số 1

Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo .....

Đề khảo sát chất lượng Học kì 1

Năm học ...

Môn: Tiếng Anh 12

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

The custom of paying a bride price before marriage is still a well-established part of many African cultures. In paying a bride price, the family of the groom must provide payment to the family of the bride before the marriage is allowed. The bride price can vary greatly from culture to culture in Africa. In the Zulu and Swazi tribes of southern Africa, the bride price often takes the form of cattle. In Western African, kola nuts, shells, and other goods are often used for the payment of the bride price. The actual payment of money sometimes takes place, but the payment of goods is more frequent. The amount of paid in a bride price can also vary. In modern times, the bride price is occasionally quite small and its value is mainly symbolic. However, the bride price can still be quite high, especially among prominent or highly traditional families.

There are a number of justifications used to explain the payment of bride price. The first is that the bride price represents an acknowledgement of the expense the bride’s family has gone in order to raise her and bring her up as a suitable bride for the groom. It also represents payment for the loss of a family member, since the bride will officially become a member of her husband’s family and will leave her own. On a deeper level the bride price represents payment for the fact that the bride will bring children into the family of the groom, thereby increasing the wealth of the family. This concept is reinforced by the fact that the bride price must often be returned if the bride fails to bear children.

The payment of the bride price has quite a number of effects on African society. First, the payment of bride price acts to increase the stability of African family structures. Sons are dependent on their fathers and older relatives to help them pay the bride price of their wives, and this generally leads to greater levels of obedience and respect. The negotiations between the two families concerning the bride price allow the parents and other family members to meet and get to know one another before the marriage. Finally, since the bride price must often be repaid in case of divorce, the bride’s family often works to make sure that any marital problems are solved quickly. Bride prices also work as a system of wealth distribution in African cultures. Wealthier families can afford to support the marriage of their son, and thus their wealth is transferred to other families.

Question 1: According to paragraph 1, all of the following are true of the bride price EXCEPT

   A. its amount and form can vary

   B. its practice is occasionally only symbolic

   C. it is a relatively new practice in Africa

   D. it is generally higher among traditional families

Question 2: Why does the author mention the payment of money?

   A. To stress that the use of goods in the payment of bride price is most common

   B. To illustrate how the practice of bride price has changed over time.

   C. To demonstrate how expensive a bride price can be sometimes.

   D. To demonstrate the differences in how rich and poor families pay the bride price.

Question 3: The word “prominent” in the passage is closest in meaning to _______.

   A. conservative

   B. important

   C. religious

   D. educated

Question 4: The phrase “The first” in the passage refers to the first _________.

   A. marriage

   B. bride price

   C. payment

   D. justification

Question 5: It can be inferred from the paragraph 2 that African families ________.

   A. never see their daughters after marriage

   B. never see their daughters after marriage

   C. pay the bride price on the day of the wedding

   D. place great importance on childbirth

Question 6: The author uses the word “marital” to indicate that the problems are related to ____

   A. money

   B. laws

   C. marriage

   D. pregnancy

Question 7: Which f the following statements is TRUE?

   A. Sometimes the bride’s family has to return the bride price to the groom’s for equal distributionof wealth.

   B. The initial negotiations over the birde price provide opportunities for 2 families to meet each other.

   C. Animals are nt an acceptable form of payment when it comes to paying the bride prices.

   D. Without having to pay the bride price, African men would not respect their family members.

Question 8: Why are women often married to older men?

   A. Young men lack the financial to marry.

   B. The legal age for marriage is lower for women than for men.

   C. Families are eager to gain the bride price from their daughter’s marriage.

   D. Women live longer than men on average.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 9: The guest on our show who has won the Opera. He is the youngest professional golfer that has won this award so far.

   A. The professional golfer who has won the Opera so far is the youngest guest on our show.

   B. The youngest professional golfer won the Opera so far is the guest on our show.

   C. The youngest guest on our show is the professional golfer winning the Opera so far.

   D. The guest on our show is the youngest professional golfer to win the Opera so far.

Question 10: We arrived at the conference. Then we realized that our reports were still at home.

   A. No sooner had we realized that our reports were at home than we arrived at the conference.

   B. Only after we arrived at the conference did we realize that our reports were still at home.

   C. Not until we arrived at the conference that we realized that our reports were still at home.

   D. Hardly had we arrived at the conference that we realized that our reports were still at home.

Question 11: Mr. Brown said to me “Make good use of your time. You wont get such an opportunity again.”

   A. Mr. Brown let me make use of my time, knowing that I wouldn’t get such an opportunity again.

   B. Mr. Brown ordered me to make good use of my time, said that I wouldn’t get such an opportunity again.

   C. Mr. Brown offered me such an opportunity so that I could make good use of my time.

   D. Mr Brown advised me to make good use of my time as I wouldn’t get such an opportunity again.

Question 12: Perhaps, the violent was provoked by the fans of the visiting team.

   A. It can have been the visiting team’s fans that set off the violence.

   B. The fans of the visiting team must have been the people who began the violence.

   C. There might have been some violence caused by the visiting team’s fans.

   D. The fans of the visiting team sould have brought about the violence.

Question 13: People say that Mr Goldman gave nearly a million pounds to charity last year.

   A. Mr Goldman is said to have given nearly a million pounds to charity last year.

   B. Nearly a million pounds is said to be given to charity by Mr Goldman.

   C. Mr Goldman was said to have given nearly a million pounds to charity last year.

   D. Nearly a million pounds was said to have been given to charity by Mr Goldman.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 14: Most people indulge _________ harmless to relieve the boredom of their lives.

   A. of      B. in

   C. to      D. for

Question 15: _______ they’ve already made their decision, there’s nothing much we can do.

   A. Seeing that

   B. on grounds that

   C. asuming that

   D. for reasons that

Question 16: _______, the town does not get much of an ocean breeze.

   A. Locating near the coast

   B. Despite location near the coast

   C. Though located near the coast

   D. In spite having location near the coast

Question 17: We missed the ferry yesterday morning. It ____ by the time we arrived at the pier.

   A. Has already gone

   B. was already going

   C. had already gone

   D. already went

Question 18: If the prisoners attempt to escape from prison, _______ immediately.

   A. They will have caught

   B. They will catch

   C. they will be caught

   D. they would be caught

Question 19: With its thousands of rocks and caves ________ out of the water, Ha Long Bay has won international recognition.

   A. Being emerged

   B. emerged

   C. emerging

   D. emerges

Question 20: Is that the man, _______?

   A. Whom you lent the money

   B. Whom did you lend the money

   C. you lent the money

   D. you lent the money to

Question 21: His reply was so _________ that I didn’t know how to interpret it.

   A. Explicable

   B. assertive

   C. explantory

   D. ambiguous

Question 22: Shelly disagreed with the board’s decision. She ______ and went to work for another company.

   A. Pursed

   B. resigned

   C. abandoned

   D. retained

Question 23: As an ASEAN member, VN has actively participated in the groups programs and has also created new ________ and cooperation mechanics.

   A. Initiatives

   B. initators

   C. initations

   D. initates

Question 24: Archaelogists think that massive floods could have ________ the dinosaurs.

   A. Wiped out

   B. laid out

   C. put aside

   D. taken down

Question 25: I’m going on business for a week, so I’ll be leaving everything ________.

   A. On your guard

   B. up to your eyes

   C. in your capable hands

   D. under the care of you

Read the passage and mark A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the blanks.

   The position of sport in today's society has changed out of all recognition. People no longer seem to think of sports as 'just a game' - to be watched or played for the (26)________ of enjoyment. Instead, it has become big business worldwide. It has become accepted practice for leading companies to provide sponsorship. TV companies pay large sums of money to screen important matches or competitions. The result has been huge rewards for athletes, some of (27)_______ are now very wealthy, particularly top footballers, golfers and tennis players. (28)_______ it is not unusual for some athletes to receive large fees on top of their salary, for advertising products or making personal appearances.

   A trend towards shorter working hours means that people generally tend to have more free time, both to watch and to take in sporting activity; sport has become a significant part of the recreation industry that we now rely (29)________ to fill our leisure hours. Professional sport is a vital part of that industry, providing for millions of (30)________ people all over the world.

Question 26:

   A. advantage    B. good

   C. benefit          D. sake

Question 27:

   A. whose     B. whom

   C. who        D. that

Question 28:

   A. in addition      B. however

   C. in contrast      D. therefore

Question 29:

   A. for      B. with

   C. on       D. in

Question 30:

   A. ordinary        B. mightly

   C. extremist      D. abnormal

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 31:

   A. commerce     B. reserve

   C. burden          D. comment

Question 32:

   A. accomplish     B. embarrass

   C. interpret        D. volunteer

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 33:

   A. approached     B. enforced

   C. composed        D. embraced

Question 34:

   A. sculpture     B. result

   C. justice        D. figure

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 35: The police have concluded tentatively that the explosion was caused by a bomb.

   A. Differently

   B. hesitantly

   C. certainly

   D. temporally

Question 36: The palace was badly damaged by fire, but was eventually restored to its original spiendor.

   A. Refurbished

   B. devasted

   C. strengthened

   D. renovated

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 37: He was attentive as Betsy and I talked about our charity concert to help the victims of the recent floods.

   A. Perceptive

   B. indifferent

   C. interested

   D. negligent

Question 38: My father hit the roof when he found that I’d damaged the car.

   A. Was over the moon

   B. burst with anger

   C. went with the flow

   D. kept his shirt on

Mark the letter A, B, C or D in your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 39:

   Fruit and vegetables should be carefully(A) washed whether (B) eaten fresh (C) or cook (D).

Question 40:

   The Netherlands, with much (A) of its land lying (B) lower than sea level, have (C) a system of dikes and canals for controlling (D) water.

Đáp án & Thang điểm

1C	2A	3B	4D	5D
6C	7B	8A	9D	10B
11D	12C	13A	14B	15A
16C	17C	18C	19C	20D
21D	22B	23A	24A	25C
26D	27B	28A	29C	30A
31B	32D	33C	34D	35C
36B	37C	38B	39D	40C

Đề thi Học kì 1 Tiếng anh lớp 12 có đáp án đề số 2

Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo .....

Đề khảo sát chất lượng Học kì 1

Năm học ...

Môn: Tiếng Anh 12

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions.

Question 1:

   A. none            B. dozen

   C. youngster    D. home

Question 2:

   A. derrived      B. faced

   C. inclined      D. hired

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3:

   A. employ      B. immune

   C. powder      D. evoke

Question 4:

   A. competent       B. computer

   C. compliance      D. commuter

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 5: We’re over the ______ ! Who wouldn’t be? We’ve just won $1 million.

   A. planet      B. clouds

   C. stars       D. moon

Question 6: It’s very cold in here. Do you mind if I _______ the heating?

   A. put off

   B. put on

   C. put up with

   D. put down

Question 7:

   A. explain        B. point

   C. indicate      D. direct

Question 8: He is very _______ of his conduct and promises never to behave like that again.

   A. sorry          B. miserable

   C. ashamed      D. guilty

Question 9: Noisy parties are really not mine _______.

   A. scene      B. liking

   C. idea       D. preference

Question 10: Of course you’ll pass. You write well and you have an exellent ____ of the subject.

   A. grip       B. seizure

   C. grasp      D. embrace

Question 11: Gardeners transplant bushes anf flowers by moving them from one place to _____.

   A. other         B. others

   C. another      D. each other

Question 12: Candles _______ from beeswax burn with a very clean flame.

   A. are made

   B. made

   C. making

 

   D. which made

Question 13: A few natural elements exist in ______ that they ate rarely seen in their natural environments.

   A. such small quatities

   B. so small quantities

   C. very small quatities

   D. small quantity

Question 14: I’d rather you ______ anything about the garden until the weather improves.

   A. don’t make

   B. didn’t make

   C. don’t do

 

   D. didn’t do

Question 15: The exhibition is free for all students. We ______ pay any fee.

   A. must not

   B. should not

   C. had better not

   D. haven’t got not

Question 16: As towns grow, they tend to destroy the surrounding ______ areas.

   A. rural

   B. commercial

   C. land

   D. urban

Question 17: – I’m very sorry for letting you wait for so long. - ________.

   A. Don’t apologize. I’ve just arrived here.

   B. You’re welcome.

   C. It’s doesn’t matter. Thank you.

   D. My pleasure. Don’t worry about it.

Question 18: – Would you like me to send this package for you? - _______.

   A. That would be nice. Any problems?

   B. Yes, please, if you don’t mind.

   C. I’m sorry, but here you are.

   D. No thanks, I’m very busy.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 19: I told you clearly and definitely not to write your answer in pencil, Tom!

   A. considerably

   B. thoroughly

   C. altogether

   D. specifically

Question 20: The washing machine I have just bought is very simple to use.

   A. boring

   B. interesting

   C. easy

   D. difficult

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 21: The loss of his journals had caused him even more sorrow than his retirement from the military six years ealier.

   A. grief          B. joy

   C. comfort      D. sympathy

Question 22: As a newspaper reporter, she always wanted to get information at first hand.

   A. indirectly     B. directly

   C. easily          D. slowly

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 23: I really regret that you haven’t told me about her family.

   A. If only you told me about her family.

   B. If only I didn’t regret that you hadn’t told me about her family.

   C. If only you had told me about her family.

   D. If only you had not told me about her family.

Question 24: I don’t think Max broke your vase because he wasn’t here then.

   A. Max wouldn’t have broken your vase because he wasn’t here then.

   B. Max was likely to break your vase because he wasn’t here then.

   C. Max can’t have broken your vase because he wasn’t here then.

   D. Max wasn’t able to break your vase because he wasn’t here then.

Question 25: “I say again. This is the most important assignment of the semester.” The professor said.

   A. The professor confirmed that that was the most important assignment of the semester.

   B. The professor informed that that was the most important assignment of the semester.

   C. The professor threatened that that was the most important assignment of the semester.

   D. The professor replied that that was the most important assignment of the semester.

Question 26: My uncle is a businessman. He was ranked the weathiest of the country.

   A. My uncle is a businessman, ranking the weathiest of the country.

   B. A businessman, my uncle, was ranked the weathiest of the country.

   C. My uncle, a businessman, was ranked the weathiest of the country.

   D. A businessman, who is my uncle, was ranked the weathiest of the country.

Question 27: There were over 2000 people at Carl’s trial. Most of them believed that he was not guilty of the crime.

   A. The majority of the more than 2000 people at Carl’s trial think that he had committed the crime.

   B. Carl had not committed the crime, and so more than 2000 people came to his trial to show their support.

   B. Carl had not committed the crime, and so more than 2000 people came to his trial to show their support.

   D. When it was announced that Carl had been found not guilty of the crime, there were over 2000 people in the audience at his trial.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 28:

   That (A) these students have improved (B) their grades because of (C) their participation (D) in the test review class.

Question 29:

   Pure sodium immediately (A) combines (B) with oxygen when is exposed (C) to air (D).

Question 30:

   The progress (A) made (B) in space (C) travel for (D) the early 1960s is remarkable.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits the numbered blanks

   We've just come back exhausted after a two-week holiday in France. We were really stupid. On the last day we drove non-stop from Marseille to Calais- we should have (31)________ our journey in Lyon or Paris. As if that wasn't enough, the sea was so rough in the English Channel that the (32) ________ took three hours instead of one and a half. Next year we've decided we're going on a cheap (33) ________ holiday to Italy. It sounds marvellous- the cost of the flight, the hotel and all our meals are (34) _________ in the price. While we're in Rome we'll be going on a guided tour of the Coliseum. The last time I was in Italy, I was on a business trip - I can't say I saw many of the famous tourist (35) _______ on that occasion.

Question 31:

   A. stopped          B. paused

   C. interrupted     D. broken

Question 32:

   A. expedition     B. crossing

   C. cruise          D. passage

Question 33:

   A. party          B. overall

   C. package      D. inclusive

Question 34:

   A. involved       B. included

   C. contained      D. combined

Question 35:

   A. views        B. visits

   C. scenes      D. sights

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

   We find that bright children are rarely held back by mixed-ability teaching. On the contrary, both their knowledge and experience are enriched. We feel that there are many disadvantages instreaming pupils. It does not take into account the fact that children develop at different rates. It can have a bad effect on both the bright and the not-so-bright child. After all, it can be quite discouraging to be at the bottom of the top grade!

   Besides, it is rather unreal to grade people just according to their intellectual ability. This is only one aspect of their total personality. We are concerned to develop the abilities of all our pupils to the full, not just their academic ability. We also value personal qualities and social skills, and we find that mixed-ability teaching contributes to all these aspects of learning.

   In our classroom, we work in various ways. The pupils often work in groups; this gives them the opportunity to learn to co-operate, to share, and to develop leadership skills. They also learn how to cope with the personal problems as well as learning how to think, to make decisions, to analyze and evaluate, to communicate effectively. The pupils learn from each other as well as from the teachers.

   Sometimes the pupils work in pairs; sometimes the work on individual tasks and assignments, they can do this at their own speed. They also have some formal class teaching when this is appropriate. We encourage our pupils to use the library, and we teach them the skills they need in order to do this effectively. An advanced pupil can do advanced works; it does not matter what age the child is. We expect our pupils to do their best, not their least, and we give them every encouragement to attain this goal.

Question 36: The phrase “held back” in paragraph 1 means ______

   A. prevented from advancing

   B. forced to study in lower class

   C. made to remain in the same classes

   D. made to lag behind

Question 37: The author argues that a teacher’s chief concern should be the development of the pupils’ _________.

   A. learning ability and communicative skills

   B. intellectual abilities

   C. total personality

   D. personal and social skills

Question 38: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage?

   A. Group work provides the pupils with the opportunity to learn to be capable organizers

   B. Pupils also learn how to participate in teaching activities

   C. Group work gives pupils the opportunity to learn to work together with others

   D. Pupils also learn to develop their reasoning ability

Question 39: The author’s purpose of writing this passage is to _________

   A. recommend pair work and group work classroom activities

   B. offer advice on the proper use of the school library

   C. argue for teaching bright and not-so-bright pupils in the same class

   D. emphasize the importance of appropriate formal classroom teaching

Question 40: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true?

   A. Development of pupils as individuals is not the aim of group work

   B. Pupils cannot develop in the best way if they are streamed into classes of different intellectual abilities

   C. It’s not good for a bright child to find out that he performs worst in a mixed-ability class

   D. There is no fixed method in teaching pupils to develop themselves to the full

Đáp án & Thang điểm

1D	2B	3D	4A	5D
6B	7A	8C	9D	10A
11C	12A	13A	14D	15A
16D	17A	18B	19B	20C
21B	22A	23C	24C	25A
26C	27A	28A	29C	30D
31D	32A	33B	34B	35D
36A	37C	38B	39C	40B

Đề thi Học kì 1 Tiếng anh lớp 12 có đáp án đề số 3

Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo .....

Đề khảo sát chất lượng Học kì 1

Năm học ...

Môn: Tiếng Anh 12

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1:

   A. educate          B. eliminate

   C. certificate      D. dedicate

Question 2:

   A. initiate        B. substantial

   C. attention     D. particular

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3:

   A. represented     B. biography

   C. indirectly      D. entertainment

Question 4:

   A. obligatory      B. geographical

   C. international     D. undergraduate

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 5: Food prices have raised so rapidly in the past few months that some families have been forced to alter their eating habits.

   A. have raised

   B. rapidly

   C. that

   D. their eating habits

Question 6: Having finished his term paper before the deadline, it was delivered to the professor before the class.

   A. Having finished

   B. before the

   C. it was delivered

   D. professor before

Question 7: Since vitamins are contained in a wide variety of foods, people seldom lack of most of them.

   A. are

   B. in a

   C. variety of

   D. lack of

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 8: We should participate in the movements ______ the natural environment.

   A. organizing to conserve

   B. organized to conserve

   C. organized conserving

   D. which organize to conserve

Question 9: ______ number of boys were swimming in the lake, but I didn’t know ______ exact number of them.

   A. A/the

   B. The/an

   C. The/the

   D. A/an

Question 10: John forgot ______ his ticket so he was not allowed ______ the club.

   A. brought/enter

   B. bring/entering

   C. bringing/to enter

   D. to bring/to enter

Question 11: Snow and rain ______ of nature.

   A. are phenomena

   B. is phenomena

   C. is phenomenon

   D. are phenomenon

Question 12: Her outgoing character contrasts ______ with that of her sister.

   A. thoroughly

   B. fully

   C. sharply

   D. coolly

Question 13: It turned out that we ______ rushed to the airport as the plane was delayed by several hours.

   A. hadn’t

   B. should have

   C. mustn’t

   D. needn’t have

Question 14: When I was a child, I loved to splash through the ______ after rain.

   A. pools      B. puddles

   C. ponds      D. rivers

Question 15: Learning Spanish isn’t so difficult once you ______.

   A. get away with it

   B. get off it

   C. get down to it

   D. get on it

Question 16: Staying in a hotel costs ______ renting a room in a dormitory for a week.

   A. twice as much as

   B. as much as twice

   C. twice more than

   D. twice as

Question 17: Please don’t ______ a word of this to anyone else, it’s highly confidential.

   A. speak

   B. pass

   C. mutter

   D. breathe

Question 18: In spite of his abilities, Peter has been ______ overlooked for promotion.

   A. repeat

   B. repeatedly

   C. repetitiveness

   D. repetitive

Question 19: I wish you ______ me a new one instead of having it ______ as you did.

   A. had given/repaired

   B. gave/to repair

   C. would give/to repair

   D. had given/to be repaired

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 20: - Helen: "I love your gardens. The plants are well taken care of!"

   - Jim : “Thanks. Yes, I suppose I've always ____.”

   A. had green fingers

   B. let nature take its course

   C. made it down on my luck

   D. drawn the short straw

Question 21: - Mrs. Skate: “How can this dress can be so expensive?”

   - The shop assistant: “_____.”

   A. Yes, it’s the most expensive

   B. You’re paying for the brand

   C. What an expensive dress

   D. That’s a good idea

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22: Adding a garage will enhance the value of the house.

   A. stabilize

   B. alter

   C. increase

   D. diminish

Question 23: You never really know where you are with her as she just blows hot and cold.

   A. keeps going

   B. keeps taking things

   C. keeps changing her mood

   D. keeps testing

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 24: Are you looking for a temporary or a permanent job?

   A. fierce        B. stable

   C. fleeting      D. loose

Question 25: Constant correction of speaking ‘errors’ by a teacher is often counter-productive, as student may become afraid to speak at all.

   A. desolate      B. fruitless

   C. barren        D. effective

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 26: Jack has won a jackpot prize. 10% of it was donated to flooded areas.

   A. Jack has won a jackpot prize, 10% which half was donated to flooded areas.

   B. Jack has won a jackpot prize, 10% of which was donated to flooded areas.

   C. Jack has won a jackpot prize, 10% of that was donated to flooded areas.

   D. Jack has won a jackpot prize, which was donated to flooded areas.

Question 27: Had she read the reference books, she would have been able to finish the test.

   A. If she had read the reference books, she could finish the test.

   B. Because she read the reference books, she was able to finish the test.

   C. Although she didn't read the reference books, she was able to finish the test.

   D. Not having read the reference books, she couldn't finish the test.

Question 28: My advice is that you get straight to the point in the next report.

   A. If I were you, I would go straight to the bush in the next report.

   B. If I were you, I would have the next report got started.

   C. If I were you, I would not beat around the bush in the next report.

   D. If I were you, I would not point out the next report.

Question 29: I whispered as I didn't want anybody to hear our conversation.

   A. Since nobody wanted to hear our conversation, I whispered.

   B. So as not to hear our conversation, I whispered.

   C. Because I whispered, anybody heard our conversation.

   D. I lowered my voice in order that our conversation couldn't be heard.

Question 30: Tim graduated with a good degree. He joined the ranks of the unemployed.

   A. Tim joined the ranks of the unemployed because he graduated with a good degree.

   B. If Tim graduated with a good degree, he would join the ranks of the unemployed.

   C. Though Tim graduated with a good degree, he joined the ranks of the unemployed.

   D. That Tim graduated with a good degree helped him join the ranks of the unemployed.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.

   The Prime Minister's comments yesterday on education spending miss the point, as the secondary education system also needs a major overhaul. Firstly, the system only views the weakest learners as having special needs. The brightest and most conscientious students are not encouraged to develop to their full (31)_____. Secondly, there's too much testing and not enough learning. My fifteen-year-old daughter, for example, has just spent the last month or so (32)_____ for exams. These aren't even real, important exams, as her GCSEs will be next year. They're just mock exams. Is the work she's been doing really going to make her more knowledgeable about her subjects, or will she forget it all tomorrow? I suspect the (33)_____. Thirdly, the standard (34)_____ doesn't give students any tuition in developing practical work-related, living and social skills, or in skills necessary for higher education. How many students entering university have the first idea what the difference is between plagiarising someone else's work and (35)_____ good use of someone else's ideas? Shouldn't they have been taught this at school? How many of them are really able to go about self-study skill that's essential at university because there are no teachers to tell you what to do - in an efficient way? Indeed, hoe many students graduate from university totally unable to spell even simple English words correctly? The system is letting our children down.

Question 31:

   A. plan          B. fame

   C. potential      D. achievement

Question 32:

   A. reading       B. lecturing

   C. cheating      D. cramming

Question 33:

   A. latter     B. frontier

   C. later      D. latest

Question 34:

   A. timetable     B. curriculum

   C. lecture        D. seminar

Question 35:

   A. having      B. taking

   C. making      D. creating

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

   Lead poisoning in children is a major health concern. Both low and high doses of paint can have serious effects. Children exposed to high doses of lead often suffer permanent nerve damage, mental retardation, blindness, and even death. Low doses of lead can lead to mild mental retardation, short attention spans, distractibility, poor academic performance, and behavioral problems.

   This is not a new concern. As early as 1904, lead poisoning in children was linked to lead-based paint. Microscopic lead particles from paint are absorbed into the bloodstream when children ingest flakes of chipped paint,plaster,or paint dust from sanding. Lead can also enter the body through household dust, nailbiting, thumb sucking, or chewing on toys and other objects painted with lead-based paint. Although American paint companies today must comply with strict regulations regarding the amount of lead used in their paint, this source of lead poisoning is still the most common and most dangerous. Children living in older, dilapidated houses are particularly at risk.

Question 36: What is the main topic of the passage?

   A. problems with household paint

   B. major health concern for children

   C. lead poisoning in children

   D. lead paint in order homes

Question 37: The phrase "exposed to" in line 2 could best be replaced by which of the following?

   A. in contact with

   B. familiar with

   C. displaying

   D. conducting

Question 38: Which of the following does the passage infer?

   A. Paint companies can no longer use lead in their paint.

   B. Paint companies must limit the amount of lead used in their paint.

   C. Paint companies aren't required to limit the amount of lead used in their paint.

   D. Paint companies have always followed restrictions regarding the amount of lead used in their paint.

Question 39: The word "ingest" could best be replaced by which of the following?

   A. inhale      B. invest

   C. inject      D. eat

Question 40: The word "dilapidated" is closest in meaning to which of the following?

   A. unpainted          B. decorated

 

   C. broken down     D. poorly painted

Đáp án & Thang điểm

1C	2D	3B	4A	5A
6C	7D	8B	9A	10D
11A	12A	13D	14B	15C
16A	17D	18B	19A	20B
21B	22C	23C	24C	25D
26B	27D	28C	29D	30C
31C	32D	33A	34B	35C
36C	37A	38B	39D	40C

Đề thi Học kì 1 Tiếng anh lớp 12 có đáp án đề số 4

Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo .....

Đề khảo sát chất lượng Học kì 1

Năm học ...

Môn: Tiếng Anh 12

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1:

   A. expands      B. travels

   C. appoints      D. animals

Question 2:

   A. stagnant      B. vacancy

   C. charity      D. habitat

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3:

   A. argument      B. marvellous

   C. sacrifice      D. supportive

Question 4:

   A. swallow      B. approach

   C. nonsense      D. nursery

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following question.

Question 5: I’m sorry because I’ve lost the key to the drawer _____ all the important papers are kept.

   A. which      B. whose

   C. who       D. where

Question 6: Mary ______ with her dolls when she was younger.

   A. used to play

   B. is used to playing

   C. used to playing

   D. is used to play

Question 7: Susana is fed ______ with the housework.

   A. of      B. up

   C. at      D. on

Question 8: If I were you, I _____ for that English course.

   A. would have applied

   B. will apply

   C. would apply

   D. should apply

Question 9: My sister ______ for you for an hour.

   A. was looking

   B. is looking

   C. has been looking

   D. looked

Question 10: She wrote her composition carefully to avoid ______ mistakes.

   A. to make     B. made

   C. making     D. will make

Question 11: The employer suffered from depression _____ by overwork and ill-health.

   A. brought on

   B. taken up

   C. come about

   D. put through

Question 12: Tom painted his room black. It looks dark and deary. He _____ a different color.

   A. should choose

   B. must have chosen

   C. should have chosen

   D. has to choose

Question 13: The investors bought a deserted warehouse ______ convert it into a shopping mall for the townspeople.

   A. so that

   B. lest they may

   C. with a view to

   D. in order to

Question 14: She is _____ than her sister.

   A. the most beautiful

   B. more beautiful

   C. beautifully

   D. the beautiful

Question 15: I don’t think Peter will reject that job offer, ______?

   A. do I

   B. will he

   C. don’t I

   D. won’t he

Question 16: I heard _____ that Jack has been dropped from the basket team.

   A. in the woods

   B. on the olive branch

   C. on the grapevine

   D. under your feet

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 17: Parents play a crucial role in a child’s upbringing in the formative years. They are really the driving force behind whatever the children do.

   A. motivation     B. completion

   C. progress        D. satisfaction

Question 18: We should join hands to protect our environment.

   A. take up

   B. put up

   C. work together

   D. make decisions

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 19: She was brought up in a well-off family. She can’t understand the problems we are facing.

   A. kind      B. poor

   C. rich      D. wealthy

Question 20: James may get into hot water when driving at full speed after drinking.

   A. get into trouble

   B. fall into disuse

   C. remain calm

   D. stay safe

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 21: – Tom: “Would you like a cup of tea?” – Linda: “______.”

   A. Yes, help youself

   B. Yes, do it yourself

   C. Yes, please

   D. Yes, that’s a good idea

Question 22: – John: “What an attractive hair style you have got, Mary.” – Mary: “______.”

   A. I don’t like your saying.

   B. Thank you very much, i’m afraid.

   C. Thank you for your compliment.

   D. You are telling a lie.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 23: She had only just put the phone down when her boss rang back.

   A. Hardly had she put the phone down when her boss rang back.

   B. No sooner had she put the phone down when her boss rang back.

   C. Hardly did she put the phone down when her boss rang back.

   D. Hardly she had put the phone down when her boss rang back.

Question 24: People rumour that the leader has been suffering from a rare disease.

   A. A rare disease is rumoured to be causing suffering to the leader.

   B. It was rumoured that the leader has been suffering from a rare disease.

   C. The leader is rumoured to have been suffering from a rare disease.

   D. The leader has been rumoured to suffer from a rare disease.

Question 25: “No, I won’t go to work at the weekend.” Said Sally.

   A. Sally apologized for not going to work at the weekend.

   B. Sally regretted not going to work at the weekend.

   C. Sally refused to go to work at the weekend.

   D. Sally promised to go to work at the weekend.

Question 26: John was not here yesterday. Perhaps he was ill.

   A. John might have been ill yesterday, so he was not here.

   B. Because of his illness, John shouldn’t have been hare yesterday.

   C. John must have been ill yesterday, so he was not here.

   D. Although John was ill yesterday, he need be here.

Question 27: Mary loved her stuffed animal when she was young. She couldn’t sleep without it.

   A. As Mary couldn’t sleep without her stuffed animal when she was young, she loved it.

   B. When Mary was young, she loved her stuffed animal so as not to sleep without it.

   C. When Mary was young, she loved her stuffed animal so much that she couldn’t sleep without it.

   D. When Mary was young, she loved her stuffed animal although that she couldn’t sleep without it.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D in your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 28:

   Education (A) and training are an (B) important steps in getting (C) the kind of job that you would like to have (D).

Question 29:

   Optimists believe (A) that in the future we will be living (B) in a cleaner environment, breathe (C) fresher air and eating (D) healthier food.

Question 30:

   Several (A) people have apparent (B) tried to change the man’s mind (C), but he refuses to listen (D).

Read the following passage and mark A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the blanks.

   From a very early age, it was apparent that Magnus Carlen was a brilliant chess player. By the age of 13, Magnus was (31)_______ to be one of the best chess players in the world, and his parents wanted him to reach his full potential as a professional chess player.

   This meant their son had to develop a lifestyle of strict (32)_____ which included many hours of practice. Only this way could he become a world champion, (33)______ Magnus’s parents supported him that they did not want him to devote his whole life to chess. They felt that if he focused only on chess, he would sufer both physically and emotionally. They made it clear to him that thay had no intention on letting their son drop out of school. He was also encouraged to follow his interest in sports. As a rest time of his (34)_____ , when Magnus graduate from high school in 2009, he was not only the best chess player in the world, but he was also awarded the title of “sport-student of the year” for his achievements in snowboarding and golf.

   Today, Magnus gives (35)______ to his parents for the way they raised him. They set rules, they never (36)_____ with his ambitions. Instead they gave him the support and encouragement he needed to achieve his goals and still be a happy young man.

Question 31:

   A. decided      B. regarded

   C. counted      D. considered

Question 32:

   A. discipline      B. order

   C. behavior        D. effort

Question 33:

   A. Since        B. Although

   C. Because      D. Until

Question 34:

   A. prepration      B. environment

   C. upbringing      D. treatment

Question 35:

   A. credit      B. approval

   C. trust        D. attention

Question 36:

   A. prevented       B. opposed

   C. mistrusted      D. interfered

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

   The air above our head is becoming cleaner. A breath of fresh air has been running right round the planet for the past five years. The planet is apparently purging itself of pollution. Paul Novell of the University of Colorado, the co-author of a report on this phenomenon says, “It seems as if the planet’s own cleaning service has suddenly got a new lease of life. Suddenly, there are a lot of changes going on up there”.

   Estimates of the death toll from urban smog have been steadily rising, so the new cleaner trend could have significant consequences for life expectancy in cities as well as for the planet itself. The sudden and unexpected reversal of several decades of worsening pollution extends from the air in city streets to the remotest mid-Pacific Ocean and Antarctica.

   Among the pollutants which have begun to disappear from the atmosphere are carbon monoxide, from car exhaust and burning rain forests, and methane from the guts of cattle, paddy fields, and gas fields. Even carbon dioxide, the main gas behind global warning, has fallen slightly.

   There are two theories about why pollution is disappearing. First that there is less pollution to start with due to laws to cut down urban smogs and acid rain starting to have a global impact. Second, that the planet may be becoming more efficient at cleaning up.

   The main planetary clean-up agent is a chemical called hydroxyl. It is present throughout the atmosphere in tiny quantities and removes most pollutants from the air by oxidizing them. The amount of hydroxyl in the air has fallen by a quarter in 1980s. Now it may be reviving for two reasons: ironically, because the ozone hole has expanded, letting in more ultraviolet radiation into the lower atmosphere, where it manufactures hydroxyl. Then the stricter controls on vehicle exhausts in America and Europe may have cut global carbon monoxide emissions, thereby allowing more hydroxyl to clean up other pollutants.

Question 37: Based on information in the passage, all of the following information referring to hydroxyl is true EXCEPT __________.

   A. oxidization of pollutants is carried out by hydroxyl.

   B. ultraviolet radiation increases production of hydroxyl.

   C. there is difficulty in destroying carbon dioxide by hydroxyl.

   D. the reduction in the ozone layer is beneficial to hydroxyl.

Question 38: The word “purging” in line 2 is closest in meaning to __________.

   A. refining

   B. ridding

   C. destroying

   D. rising

Question 39: The passage supports which of the following conclusion?

   A. An expansion in hydroxyl has enlarged the ozone hole.

   B. The decrease of methane has enabled ultraviolet radiation to enter the atmosphere.

   C. The reduction in carbon dioxide has produced a cleaner atmosphere.

   D. The beneficial effect of hydroxyl has aided the cleaning process.

Question 40: The word “it” in paragraph 5 refers to ______.

   A. the ozone hole

   B. clean-up agent

   C. acid rain

   D. urban smog

Đáp án & Thang điểm

1C	2B	3D	4C	5D
6A	7B	8C	9C	10C
11C	12C	13D	14B	15B
16C	17A	18C	19B	20C
21C	22C	23A	24C	25C
26C	27C	28B	29C	30B
31D	32A	33B	34D	35C
36D	37C	38A	39D	40B

Đề thi Học kì 1 Tiếng anh lớp 12 có đáp án đề số 5

Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo .....

Đề khảo sát chất lượng Học kì 1

Năm học ...

Môn: Tiếng Anh 12

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 1:

   A. compliment      B. sacrifice

   C. represent        D. interview

Question 2:

   A. education          B. personality

   C. disappearance     D. development

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 3:

   People (A) who work (B) involves (C) standing for most of the day often suffer (D) from backache.

Question 4:

   The Great Pyramid (A) of Giza is (B) said to (C) have built over (D) a 20-year period.

Question 5:

   I (A) clearly (B) remember (C) to tell you (D) about this before.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 6: If everyone _____, how would we control the traffic?

   A. could fly      B. flies

   C. had flown      D. can fly

Question 7: John was deported on account of his expired visa. He_____it renewed.

   A. should have had

   B. must have had

   C. needn't have had

   D. mightn't have had

Question 8: The vegetables_____in this supermarket are always fresh.

   A. to sell

   B. selling

   C. which sold

   D. sold

Question 9: In the past, women used to be_____dependent on their husbands or fathers.

   A. economic

   B. economically

   C. economical

   D. economy

Question 10: A good leader should not be conservative, but rather_____to new ideas.

   A. receptive

   B. acceptable

   C. permissive

   D. applicable

Question 11: The more he tried to explain,_____we got

   A. the more confused

   B. the most confusing

   C. the much confused

   D. the more confusing

Question 12: Who_____in that house before the Smiths bought it?

   A. has lived

   B. lives

   C. was living

   D. had lived

Question 13: After_____a week in the cottage, he began to think of_____it and returning to London.

   A. spending/ having sold

   B. having spent/ selling

   C. spending/ to sell

   D. having spent/ sold

Question 14: He never drinks wine,_____?

   A. doesn't he

   B. hasn't he

   C. won't he

   D. does he

Question 15: _____individuals are those who share the same hobbies, interests, or points of view.

   A. Light-hearted

   B. Like-minded

   C. Open-minded

   D. Even-handed

Question 16: The child has no problem reciting the poem; he has_____it to memory.

   A. devoted

   B. committed

   C. added

   D. admitted

Question 17: _____! Oh, dear. Didn't you see that car coming?

   A. Speak up

   B. Stay on

   C. Watch out

   D. Grow up

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 18: Peter and Mary are discussing life in the future.

   - Peter: "I believe space travel will become more affordable for many people in the future." Mary: "____”

   A. There's no doubt about that.

   B. I am sorry to hear that.

   C. It is very kind of you to say so.

   D. It doesn't matter at all.

Question 19: Mary is giving Diana a present. - Diana: “Thank you for your lovely present.” - Mary: “_____”

   A. Yes, it’s really a lovely present.

   B. It was the least I could do.

   C. No worry. A present is coming.

   D. Why do you have to say so?

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 20:

   A. arrived      B. failed

   C. watched      D. discovered

Question 21:

   A. listens      B. enjoys

   C. reviews      D. protects

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22: Nobody knows the origin of the Vietnamese long dress. There was no evidence about where and when it appeared.

   A. evaluation

   B. book

   C. proof

   D. symptom

Question 23: Deforestation may seriously jeopardize the habitat of many species in the local area.

   A. set fire to

   B. do harm to

   C. make way for

   D. give rise to

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 24: With consummate skill, she steered the conversation away from any embarrassing subjects.

   A. concerning persuasive ability

   B. having to do with speaking skill

   C. unsatisfactory, not good enough

   D. self-confident, not embarrassed

Question 25: When he passes the entrance exam, his parents will be walking on the air.

   A. feeling extremely airy

   B. extremely light

   C. feeling extremely unhappy

   D. feeling extremely happy

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 26: Peter was in a very bad mood. His car had broken down.

   A. Peter was in a very bad mood, whose car had broken down.

   B. Peter, whose car had broken down, was in a very bad mood.

   C. Peter who's car had broken down was in a very bad mood.

   D. Peter, who was in a very bad mood, his car had broken down.

Question 27: Sports clear my mind. They also help me maintain a healthy lifestyle.

   A. All that sports can do is to clear my mind instead of maintaining a healthy lifestyle.

   B. Sports clear my mind so that I can maintain a healthy lifestyle.

   C. My mind is cleared and so is the maintenance of a healthy lifestyle.

   D. Not only do sports clear my mind, but they also help me maintain a healthy lifestyle.

Question 28: Before telling me how to manage my life, she should really put her house in order.

   A. It's advisable that she should do things in order.

   B. She'd better mind her own business rather than mine.

   C. She is too busy to tell me how to manage my life.

   D. She should tidy her house before helping me with mine.

Question 29: “Would you please lend me a hand?” Jane said to me.

   A. Jane wanted me to lend her some money.

   B. I would not please her by lending it to her.

   C. I said I would lend her a hand.

   D. Jane politely asked me to help her.

Question 30: Meaningful silence is always better than meaningless words.

   A. Words are always meaningless, and so is silence.

   B. Meaningless words are not so good as meaningful silence.

   C. Meaningful silence is the best among meaningful words.

   D. Meaningless words are not so good than meaningful silence.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.

   To many people, their friends are the most important things in their life. Really good friends (31)_____ the good times and the bad times, help you when you have got problems and never turn their backs on you. Your best friend may be someone you have known all your life, someone you have grown up with and been through lots of (32)_____and downs with.

   There are all sorts of things that can bring about this special relationship. It may be the result of enjoying the same activities, having the outlook on life or sharing (33)_______experiences. Most of us have met someone that we have immediately felt relaxed with as if we had known them for years. (34)_______, it really takes you years to get to know someone well enough to consider your best friend.

   To the majority of us, this is someone we trust completely and who understands us better (35)______ anyone else. It is the person you can turn to for impartial advice and a shoulder to cry on when life gets you down.

Question 31:

   A. give       B. share

   C. spend      D. have

Question 32:

   A. ups          B. towards

   C. forwards     D. backwards

Question 33:

   A. similarity     B. similarly

   C. similar        D. similize

Question 34:

   A. Because       B. Although

   C. Otherwise      D. However

Question 35:

   A. as        B. than

   C. most      D. much

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

   If you want to turn your hobbies into jobs, consider the following experts' suggestions. If you are a helpful person, you can teach others to do what you love. "Teach piano lessons, offer cooking classes, or teach another language if those are your passions. You can do this by teaching through a college or continuing education program, by creating your own classes, or by creating your own webinars or tele-seminar series online", Collamer says.

   If you are not interested in teaching, appraise, repair or fix items related to what you love. Most hobbies have "stuff" connected to them, and sometimes, that stuff needs to be fixed by a skilled and knowledgeable person. "You could fix computers, appraise collectibles, repair bicycles, source missing parts for highly unusual items, and so on," Collamer says.

   "The next time you find yourself confused as to how to generate income from your hobbies, search out the most successful entrepreneurs in your area of interest and study their business models and revenue streams," Collamer suggests. "Ask yourself: Is their income coming from consulting services, videos, accessories, events, classes or product sales? What is their mix of products and services? What is their pricing strategy?" In doing this, you will discover proven models for monetizing your hobbies, as well as helpful information about how to price your own services and products.

   Mufson, who has interests outside of career coaching, says she managed to turn a hobby into a lucrative part- time gig. "I personally turned my hobby of creating gemstone jewellery into a side-line business," she explains. "Jewellery making is an expensive hobby and early on I decided to make it pay for itself. Since then I have developed two online stores and a relationship with a jewellery gallery that sells most of my work."

Question 36: What is the best title for the passage?

   A. Methods of designing and selling jewellery

   B. Tips for turning your interests into careers

   C. Experts' advice on choosing the best jobs

   D. Pros and cons of running a private business

Question 37: Collamer suggests_____.

   A. interviewing the richest business people

   B. getting a university degree in business

   C. working for the most popular employer

   D. analyzing successful people's methods

Question 38: What is Mufson most likely to make?

   A. Shoes         B. Clothes

   C. Earrings      D. Handbags

Question 39: Where are most of Mufson's products sold?

   A. At her shops

   B. At a gallery

   C. Via the Internet

   D. In the market

Question 40: Which does the phrase "do this" in the first paragraph refer to?

   A. Have your passion

   B. Teach others your hobbies

   C. Create your own webinars

   D. Offer cooking classes

Đáp án & Thang điểm

1C	2D	3A	4C	5C
6A	7A	8D	9B	10A
11A	12D	13B	14D	15B
16B	17C	18A	19B	20C
21D	22C	23B	24C	25C
26B	27D	28B	29D	30B
31B	32A	33C	34D	35B
36B	37D	38C	39B	40B

Đề thi Học kì 1 Tiếng anh lớp 12 năm 2022 - 2023 có đáp án đề số 6

Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo .....

Đề khảo sát chất lượng Học kì 1

Năm học 2022 - 2023

Môn: Tiếng Anh 12

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1.

A. finished

B. escaped

C. damaged

D. promised

Question 2.

A. clothes

B. couches

C. bosses

D. boxes

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3.

A. signal

B. instance

C. airport

D. mistake

Question 4.

A. chemistry

B. decision

C. statistics

D. attention

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 5. We can use either verbal or nonverbal forms of communication.

A. using gesture

B. using speech

C. using verbs

D. using facial expressions

Question 6. We are a very close- knit family.

A. need each other

B. are close to each other

C. have very close relationship with each other

D. are polite to each other

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 7. They believe that life will be far better than it is today, so they tend to look on the bright side in any circumstance.

A. be confident

B. be smart

C. be optimistic

D. be pessimistic

Question 8. English is a compulsory subject in most of the schools in Vietnam.

A. required

B. optional

C. paid

D. dependent

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to show the underlined part that need correction in each of the following sentences.

Question 9. Today the (A) number of people (B) whom enjoy winter sports (C) is almost double (D) that of twenty years ago.

Question 10. There (A) are probably (B) around 3,000 languages (C) speaking in (D) the world.

Question 11. (A) The novelist Shirley Hazzard is noted (B) for the insight, poetic style, and (C) sensitive she (D) demonstrates in her works.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 12. Two friends Diana and Anne are talking with each other about their shopping.

~ Diana: “Look at this catalog, Anne. I think I want to get this red blouse.”

~ Anne: “.....”

A. Don’t you have one like this in blue?

B. That’s a long way to go, dear.

C. No, thank you.

D. I’ll go myself, then.

Question 13. Henry is talking to his mother.

~ Henry: “I’ve passed my driving test.”

~ His mother: “..............”

A. All right.

B. That’s too bad.

C. That’s a good idea.

D. Congratulations!

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the best answer to each of the following questions.

Question 14. In many families, the most important decisions are.......by many women.

A. done

B. made

C. arrived

D. given

Question 15. Each of us must take......for our own actions.

A. ability

B. responsibility

C. possibility

D. probability

Question 16. Thanks to the women's liberation, women can take part in......activities.

A. social

B. society

C. socially

D. socialize

Question 17. I know you feel bad now, Tommy, but try to put it out of your mind. By the time you’re an adult, you........all about it.

A. are forgetting

B. will have forgotten

C. forget

D. will be forgetting

Question 18........., Nam Cao is a realistic writer, but he still used a lot of romance in his stories.

A. On my part

B. On the whole

C. On the contrary

D. On the other hand

Question 19. Kate asked Janet where......the previous Sunday.

A. has she been

B. had she been

C. she had been

D. she has been

Question 20. We live in a large house in.....middle of the village.

A. a

B. an

C. the

D. No article

Question 21. If Tom.......an alarm, the thieves wouldn’t have broken into his house.

A. installs

B. had installed

C. have installed

D. installed

Question 22. My English teacher, Mrs. Jane, was the person......I had great respect.

A. for whom

B. whom

C. for who

D. that

Question 23. Whole villages were.........by the floods last year.

A. come up

B. looked after

C. taken out

D. wiped out

Question 24. When my mother is busy preparing dinner, my father often gives her a hand.....the housework.

A. on

B. with

C. for

D. about

Question 25. UNESCO was established to encourage collaboration......nations in the areas......education, science, culture, and communication.

A. between - in

B. among - of

C. between - of

D. among - in

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 26. ‘Sorry, we’re late. It took us ages to look for a parking place,’ said John.

A. John said that he was late because he had spent a lot of time finding a parking place.

B. John finally found a parking place after a long time searching even though they were late.

C. John apologized for being late because it took them much time to find a parking place.

D. John said sorry for being late because he had to try his best to look for a parking place.

Question 27. People say that he won a lot of money on the Vietlott.

A. He was said that he won a lot of money on the Vietlott.

B. He is said to win a lot of money on the Vietlott.

C. He won a lot of money on the Vietlott as people said.

D. He is said to have won a lot of money on the Vietlott.

Question 28. I have never played golf before.

A. This is the first time I have ever played golf.

B. I used to play golf but I gave it up already.

C. It is the last time I played golf.

D. It is the first time I had played golf.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 29. My grandparents’ lake house was built in 1953. It was completely destroyed by the forest fire.

A. My grandparents’ lake house was built in 1953; however, completely destroying the forest fire.

B. My grandparents’ lake house, which was built in 1953, was completely destroyed by the forest fire.

C. My grandparents’ lake house was built in 1953, so it was completely destroyed by the forest fire.

D. The forest fire destroyed my grandparents’ lake house was built in 1953.

Question 30. Her living conditions were difficult. However, she studied very well.

A. Difficult as her living conditions, she studied very well.

B. She studied very well thanks to the fact that she lived in difficult conditions.

C. She studied very well in spite of her difficult living conditions.

D. Although she lived in difficult conditions, but she studied very well.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.

School exams are, generally speaking, the first kind of tests we take. They find out (31).....much knowledge we have gained. But do they really show how intelligent we are? After all, isn’t it a fact that some people who are very successful academically don’t have any common sense?

Intelligence is the speed at which we can understand and react to new situations and it is usually tested by logic puzzles. (32)......scientists are now preparing advanced computer technology that will be able to “read” our brains, for the present, tests are still the most popular ways of measuring intelligence.

A person’s IQ is his intelligence (33)......it is measured by a special test. The most common IQ tests are run by Mensa, an organization that was founded in England in 1946. By 1976 it had 1,300 members in Britain. Today there are 44,000 in Britain and 100,000 worldwide, (34)......in the US.

People taking the tests are judged in relation to an average score of 100, and those (35)......score over 148 are entitled to join Mensa. This works out at 2% of the population.

Question 31.

A. what

B. how

C. which

D. why

Question 32.

A. Although

B. Until

C. Despite

D. Because

Question 33.

A. how

B. as

C. that

D. so

Question 34.

A. enormously

B. highly

C. considerably

D. mainly

Question 35.

A. which

B. whom

C. why

D. who

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

Although speech is the most advanced form of communication, there are many ways of communicating without using speech. Signals, signs, symbols, and gestures may be found in every known culture. The basic function of signal is to impinge upon the environment in such a way that it attracts attention, for example, the dots and dashes of a telegraph circuit. Coded to refer to speech, the potential for communication is really great. Less adaptable to the codification of words, signs also contain meaning in and of themselves. A stop sign or barber pole conveys meaning quickly and conveniently. Symbols are more difficult to describe than either signals or signs because of their intricate relationship with the receiver’s cultural perceptions. In some culture, applauding in a theater provides performers with an auditory symbol of approval. Gestures such as waving and handshaking also convey certain cultural messages.

Although signals, signs, symbols, and gestures are very useful, they do have a major disadvantage. They usually do not allow ideas to be shared without the sender being directly adjacent to the receiver. As a result, means of communication intended to be used for long distances and extended periods are based upon speech. Radio, television, and the telephone are only a few.

Question 36. Which of the following would be the best title for the passage?

A. Gestures

B. Signs and signals

C. Speech

D. Communication

Question 37. What does the author say about the speech?

A. It is dependent upon the advances made by inventors.

B. It is the most advanced form of communication.

C. It is necessary for communication to occur.

D. It is the only true form of communication.

Question 38. All of the following are true EXCEPT............

A. Signal, symbols, signs and gestures are found in every culture.

B. Signal, symbols, signs and gestures are very useful.

C. Signal, symbols, signs and gestures also have some disadvantage.

D. Signal, symbols, signs and gestures are only used for long distance contact.

Question 39. The phrase “impinge upon” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to.........

A. prohibit

B. affect

C. vary

D. improve

Question 40. The word “it” in paragraph 1 refers to...........

A. way

B. environment

C. speech

D. signal

Question 41. Applauding was cited as an example of..........

A. a signal

B. a sign

C. a gesture

D. a symbol

Question 42. Why were the telephone, radio, and the television invented?

A. Because people were unable to understand signs, signals, and symbols.

B. Because people wanted to communicate across long distances.

C. Because people believed that signs, signals, and symbols were obsolete.

D. Because people wanted new forms of communication.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.

It is commonly believed in the United States that school is where people go to get an education. Nevertheless, it has been said that today children interrupt their education to go to school. The distinction between schooling and education implied by this remark is important.

Education is much more open-ended and all-inclusive than schooling. Education knows no bounds. It can take place anywhere, whether in the shower or on the job, whether in a kitchen or on a tractor. It includes both the formal learning that takes place in schools and the whole universe of informal learning. The agents of education can range from a revered grandparent to the people debating politics on the radio, from a child to a distinguished scientist. Whereas schooling has a certain predictability, education quite often produces surprises. A chance conversation with a stranger may lead a person to discover how little is known of other religions. People are engaged in education in infancy. Education, then, is a very broad, inclusive term. It is a lifelong process, a process that starts long before the start of school, and one that should be an integral part of one's entire life.

Schooling, on the other hand, is a specific, formalized process, whose general pattern varies little from one setting to the next. Throughout a country, children arrive at school at approximately the same time, take assigned seats, are taught by an adult, use similar textbooks, do homework, take exams, and so on. The slices of reality that are to be learned, whether they are the alphabet or an understanding of the workings of government, have usually been limited by the boundaries of the subjects being taught. For example, high school students know that they are not likely to find out in their classes the truth about political problems in their communities or what the newest filmmakers are experimenting with. There are definite conditions surrounding the formalized process of schooling.

Question 43. What is the main idea of the passage?

A. The best school teach a wide variety of subjects.

B. Education and schooling are quite different experiences.

C. Students benefit from schools, which require long hours and homework.

D. The more years students go to school, the better their education is.

Question 44. What does the author probably mean by using the expression “children interrupt their education to go to school” in paragraph 1?

A. Going to several different schools is educationally beneficial.

B. School vacations interrupt the continuity of the school year.

C. Summer school makes the school year too long.

D. All of people’s life is an education.

Question 45. The word “chance” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to..........

A. unexpected

B. usual

C. passive

D. lively

Question 46. The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to.......

A. slices of reality

B. similar textbooks

C. boundaries

D. seats

Question 47. The phrase “For example,” in paragraph 3, introduces a sentence that gives examples of.......

A. similar textbooks

B. the results of schooling

C. the workings of a government

D. the boundaries of the subjects

Question 48. The passage supports which of the following conclusions?

A. Without formal education, people would remain ignorant.

B. Education systems need to be radically reformed.

C. Going to school is only part of how people become educated.

D. Education involves many years of professional training.

Question 49. The passage is organized by........

A. listing and discussing several educational problems

B. contrasting the meanings of two related words

C. narrating a story about excellent teacher

D. giving examples of different kinds of schools

Question 50. The writer seems to agree that........

A. Schooling is more important than education

B. Education is not as important as schooling

C. Schooling is unlimited and more informal

D. Education is more influential than schooling

Đáp án

1C	2A	3D	4A	5B
6C	7D	8B	9B	10C
11C	12A	13D	14B	15B
16A	17B	18B	19C	20C
21B	22A	23D	24B	25B
26C	27D	28A	29B	30C
31B	32A	33B	34D	35D
36D	37B	38D	39B	40D
41D	42B	43B	44D	45A
46A	47D	48C	49B	50D

Đề thi Học kì 1 Tiếng anh lớp 12 có đáp án đề số 7

Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo .....

Đề khảo sát chất lượng Học kì 1

Năm học ...

Môn: Tiếng Anh 12

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1.

A. organized

B. escaped

C. maintained

D. explored

Question 2.

A. compose

B. program

C. compete

D. pronounce

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3.

A. village

B. purpose

C. police

D. student

Question 4.

A. engineer

B. entertain

C. national

D. Vietnamese

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 5. On ________ Internet and with cable television we can select information from a wide variety of sources.

A. 0

B. an

C. the

D. a

Question 6. I’m sorry. I didn’t break the vase on ________.

A. Time

B. intention

C. purpose

D. my mind

Question 7. As soon as I _________ smoking, I felt a lot better.

A. Took out

B. gave out

C. gave up

D. took up

Question 8. I ________ a very beautiful child while I was walking on the beach.

A. Was seeing

B. have seen

C. see

D. saw

Question 9. By working hard, you _________ achieve the results you desire.

A. Had better

B. should

C. would rather

D. may

Question 10. _________ today, there would be nowhere for them to stay.

A. Provided they arrive

B. if they arrived

C. if they arrive

D. had they arrived

Question 11. The children were quite attracted by the tamer and his animals ________ were performing on the stage.

A. Which

B. whom

C. that

D. who

Question 12. I don’t feel like _________ to the cinema now because I’m under the weather.

A. To have gone

B. to go

C. go

D. going

Question 13. Our plan _________ by the members of the committee.

A. Considers

B. is being considered

C. is considering

D. considered

Question 14. Caring for a sick relative is the task that brings both ______ and pain.

A. Pleased

B. please

C. pleasant

D. pleasure

Question 15. The heavy rain has caused _________ in many parts of our country.

A. Droughts

B. wind

C. floods

D. snow

Question 16. An economic __________ is a time when there is very little economic activity, which causes a lot of unemployment and poverty.

A. Mission

B. depression

C. floods

D. development

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable answer to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 17. John is complementing Jane n her new dress.

- John: You look great in this new dress. – Jane: ____________.

A. D not say anything about it.

B. I am glad you like it.

C. Not at all.

D. With pleasure.

Question 18. Harry is talking to judy after Judy had helped Harry.

- Harry: Thanks for your help. – Judy: ___________.

A. Don’t mentiong it. That’s the least thing I could do.

B. Me too

C. Long time no see

D. So long.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word in each of the following questions.

Question 19. One must reside in the United States 5 years in order to apply for citizenship.

A. Abundon

B. accommodate to

C. invade

D. live in

Question 20. When being interviewed, you should concentrate on what the interviewer is saying or asking you.

A. Be related to

B. express

C. pay attention to

D. be interested in

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word in each of the following questions.

Question 21. School uniform is required in most of Vnese schools.

A. optional

B. depended

C. divided

D. compulsory

Question 22. The proposal for a new high-speed railway will go ahead though it meets with strong opposition from the public.

A. disagreement

B. demand

C. dislike

D. support

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 23. A basic knowledge of scial studies, such as history and geography, are considered a basic part of the education of every child.

A. Child

B. are

C. basic

D. history

Question 24. Many young people lack skills, good education, and financial to settle in the urban areas where many jobs are found.

A. Urban areas

B. financial

C. are found

D. the most

Question 25. It has been said that laser to be the most miraculous to cure patients.

A. To be

B. that

C. has been said

D. the most

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentences that is closest in meaning to each of the following question.

Question 26. I have never talked to the headmaster before.

A. It’s the first time I will ever have talked to the headmaster.

B. It’s the first time I had ever talked to the headmaster.

C. It’s the first time I ever talked to the headmaster.

D. It’s the first time I have ever talked to the headmaster.

Question 27. “I’m sorry I have to leave so early.” He said.

A. He apologized for having to leave early.

B. He apologized that he has to leave early.

C. He apologized to have to leave early.

D. He apologized to have left early.

Question 28. I did not come to your party because of the rain.

A. Even though it rained, I came to your party.

B. If it did not rain, I would come to your party.

C. Suppose it did not rain, I would come to your party.

D. It was the rain that prevented me from coming to your party.

Question 29. I don’t remember the man. You met him at the canteen last week.

A. I don’t remember the man whom you met at the canteen last week.

B. I don’t remember the man whom you met him at the canteen last week.

C. I don’t remember the man that you met him at the canteen last week.

D. I don’t remember the man whose you met at the canteen last week.

Question 30. They spent more maney. They had to work harder.

A. The more they spent money, the harder work they had.

B. The more money they spent, the more harder they had to work.

C. The more they spent money, the more hard work they had to work.

D. The more money they spent, the harder they had to work.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase for each of the blanks.

Language is considered a significant (31)_________ of communication in international relations. People in modern world have no longer been bound to their own countries. Moreover, in keeping (32)________ with speedy scientific developments nowadays, they must widen their (33)_________ relations with those highly developed nations in other parts of the world, owning to the fact that no one is able to (34)_________ with any natives in the world, it is necessary for people to choose to learn a foreign language as a word-wide common means of communication (35)______ their own mother tongue or native language. That is why English has been chosen by most people to be a foreign language to master. More and more people use English and the number of those who lean English as a foreign language has been increasing so rapidly that it has outnumbered that of any other.

Question 31.

A. equipment

B. means

C. method

D. way

Question 32.

A. concerned

B. on

C. informed

D. safe

Question 33.

A. cooperative

B. conflicting

C. hostile

D. diplomatic

Question 34.

A. communicate

B. agree

C. deal

D. contact

Question 35.

A. besides

B. additional

C. beside

D. moreover

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Last week I went to visit Atlantic College, an excellent private college in Wales. Unusually, it gives young people much needed experience of life outside the classroom, as well as the opportunity to study for their exams. The students, who are aged between 16 and 18 and come from all over the world, spend the morning studying. In the a ernoon they go out and do a really useful activity, such as helping on the farm, looking a er people with learning difficulties, or checking for pollution in rivers.

One of the great things about Atlantic College students is that they come from many different social backgrounds and countries. As few can afford the fees of £20,000 over two years, grants are available. A quarter of the students are British, and many of those can only attend because they receive government help. ‘I really admire the college for trying to encourage international understanding among young people’, as Barbara Molenkamp, a student from the Netherlands, said. ‘You learn to live with people and respect them, even the ones you don’t like. During the summer holidays my mother couldn’t believe how much less I argued with my sister.’

To sum up, Atlantic College gives its students an excellent education, using methods which really seem to work.

Question 36. The word “it” is closest in meaning to _________.

A. The cassroom

B. life

C. Atlantic College

D. experience

Question 37. How has Barbara changed sice being at Atlantic College?

A. She is more confident than her sister.

B. She prefers her new friends to her family.

C. She knows a lot about ther countries.

D. She finds it easier to get on with people.

Question 38. What can a reader find out from this text?

A. what the British education system is like.

B. what kind of programme Atlantic College offers.

C. what the British education system is like.

D. how to become a student at Atlantic College.

Question 39. The word “argued” is closest in meaning to _________.

A. Quarreled

B. regarded

C. respected

D. admired

Question 40. The word “opportunity” is closest in meaning to __________.

A. Chance

B. lucky

C. respect

D. idea

Question 41. What is the writer's opinion of Atlantic College?

A. It doesn't allow students enough study time.

B. It doesn't give good value for money.

C. Its way of teaching is successful

D. Students are taught to like each other.

Question 42. What is the writer trying to do in the text?

A. givean opinion about a particular student.

B. describe the activities students do in their free time.

C. describe his own experience of education

D. give an opinion about a special type of education.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

For more than six million American children, coming home after school means coming back to an empty house. Some deal with the situation by watching TV. Some may hide. But all of them have something in common. They spend part of each day alone. They are called “latchkey children”. They are children who look after themselves while their parents work. And their bad condition has become a subject of concern.

Lynette Long was once the principal of an elementary school. She said, “we had a school rule against wearing jewelry. A lot of kids had chains around their necks with keys attached. I was constantly telling them to put the keys inside shirts. There were so many keys; it never came to my mind what they meant.” Slowly, she learned that they were house keys. She and her husband began talking to the children who had keys. They learned of the effect working couples and single parents were having on their children. Fear wasthe biggest problem faced by children at home alone. One in three latchkey children the Longs talked to reported being frightened. Many had nightmares and were worried about their own safety. The most common way latchkey children deal with their fears is by hiding. They may hide in a shower stall, under a bed or in a closet. The second is TV. They often turn the volume up. It’s hard to get statistics on latchkey children, the Longs have learned. Most parents are slow to admit that they leave their children alone.

Question 43. The phrase “they” means

A. latchkey children’s parents

B. empty houses

C. latchkey children’s

D. all American children

Question 44. What is the most common way for latchkey children to deal with fears?

A. Talking to the Longs    C. lying under a TV

B. Hiding somewhere    D. having a shower

Question 45. Lynette Long learned of latchkey children’s problems by.

A. delivering questionaires

B. visiting their homes

C. interviewing their parents

D. talking to them

Question 46. Why did a lot of kids have chains around their necks with keys attached?

A. They had to use the keys to enter their houses when they came home.

B. Schools didn’t allow them to wear jewelry, so they wore keys instead.

C. They were fully grown and had become independent.

D. They had to use the keys to enter their houses when they came home.

Question 47. The main problem of latchkey children is that they.

A. suffer a lot from being left alone

B. are growing in numbers

C. watch too much television during the day

D. are also found in middle-class families

Question 48. The phrase “an empty house” in the passage mostly means

A. a house with no people inside

B. a house with nothing inside

C. a house with no furniture

D. a house with too much space

Question 49. What do latchkey children suffer most from when they are at home alone?

A. Tiredness

B. Fear

C. Boredom

D. Lonliness

Question 50.The phrase “latchkey children” in the passage means children who

A. are locked inside houses with latches and keys

B. like to carry latches and keys with them everywhere

C. look after themselves while their parents are not at home

D. close doors with keys and watch TV by themselves

Đáp án

1B	2B	3C	4C	5C
6C	7C	8D	9D	10B
11C	12D	13B	14D	15C
16B	17B	18A	19D	20C
21A	22D	23B	24B	25A
26D	27A	28D	29A	30D
31B	32C	33A	34A	35A
36C	37D	38B	39A	40A
41C	42A	43C	44B	45D
46D	47A	48A	49B	50C

Đề thi Học kì 1 Tiếng anh lớp 12 có đáp án đề số 8

Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo .....

Đề khảo sát chất lượng Học kì 1

Năm học ...

Môn: Tiếng Anh 12

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 1. You have just passed your exam. This makes your parents happy.

A. Having just passed your exam making your parents happy.

B. You have just passed your exam makes your parents happy.

C. That you have just passed your exam makes your parents happy.

D. You have just passed your exam which it makes your parents happy.

Question 2. You cannot completely avoid stress in your life. You need to find ways to cope with it.

A. After you can completely avoid stress in your life, you need to find ways to cope with it.

B. As long as you can completely avoid stress in your lives, you need to find ways to cope with it.

C. As you cannot completely avoid stress in your life, you need to find ways to cope with it.

D. Because stress can completely be avoided in your life, you need to find ways to cope with it.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 3. Their children learn primarily by directly experiencing the world around it.

A. it

B. world

C. experiencing

D. primarily

Question 4. The number of wildlife habitat reserves have been established in order to save endangered species from extinction.

A. save

B. established

C. have

D. species

Question 5. Her husband asked her son what did he want for his birthday.

A. asked

B. son

C. his birthday

D. did he want

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 6 to 10.

Researchers in communication show that more feelings and intentions are (6)_______ and received nonverbally than verbally. Mehrabian and Wienerfollowing have stated that only 7% of message is sent through words, with remaining 93% sent nonverbal (7)_______.

Humans use nonverbal communication because:

1. Words have limitations: There are (8)_______ areas where nonverbal communication is more (9)_______ than verbal, especially when we explain the shape, directions, personalities which are expressed nonverbally.

2. Nonverbal signal are powerful: Nonverbal cues primarily express inner feelings while verbal messages deal basically with outside world.

3. Nonverbal message are likely to be more genuine: because nonverbal behaviors cannot be controlled as easily as spoken words.

4. Nonverbal signals can express feelings inappropriate to state: Social etiquette limits what can be said, but nonverbal cues can communicate thoughts.

5. A separate communication channel is necessary to (10)_______ send complex messages: A speaker can add enormously to the complexity of the verbal message through simple nonverbal signals.

Question 6.

A. thrown

B. mailed

C. posted

D. sent

Question 7.

A. postures

B. expressions

C. thought

D. gestures

Question 8.

A. numerous

B. sum

C. amount

D. great deal

Question 9.

A. effectiveness

B. effect

C. effectively

D. effective

Question 10.

A. get

B. make

C. have

D. help

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions .

Computer programmer David Jones earns £35,000 a year designing new computer games, yet he cannot find a bank prepared to let him have a cheque card. Instead, he has been told to wait another two years, until he is 18.

The 16-year-old works for a small firm in Liverpool, where the problem of most young people of his age is finding a job. David's firm releases two new games for the expanding home computer market each month. But David's biggest headache is what to do with his money.

Despite his salary, earned by inventing new programs within tight schedules, with bonus payments and profit-sharing, he cannot drive a car, take out a mortgage, or obtain credit cards.

He lives with his parents in their council house in Liverpool, where his father is a bus driver. His company has to pay £150 a month in taxi fares to get him the five miles to work and back every day because David cannot drive.

David got his job with the Liverpool-based company four months ago, a year after leaving school with six O-levels and working for a time in a computer shop. "I got the job because the people who run the firm knew I had already written some programs," he said.

"I suppose £35,000 sounds a lot but actually that's being pessimistic. I hope it will come to more than that this year." He spends some of his money on records and clothes, and gives his mother £20 a week. But most his spare time is spent working.

“Unfortunately, computing was not part of our studies at school," he said. "But 1 had been studying it in books and 'magazines for four years in my spare time. 1 knew what 1 wanted to do and never considered staying on at school. Most people in this business are fairly young, anyway."

David added: "I would like to earn a million and 1 suppose early retirement is a possibility. You never know when the market might disappear."

Question 11. Why is David different from other young people at his age?

A. He earns an extremely high salary.

B. He lives at home with his parents.

C. He does not go out much.

D. He is not unemployed.

Question 12. David's greatest problem is _______

A. learning to drive.

B. spending his salary.

C. inventing computer games.

D. making the banks treat him as an adult.

Question 13. He was employed by the company because _______

A. he works very hard.

B. he had written some computer programs.

C. he had worked in a computer shop.

D. he had learnt to use computers at school.

Question 14. He left school after taking O-levels because _______

A. he was afraid of getting too old to start computing.

B. he did not enjoy school.

C. he wanted to work with computers and staying at school did not help him.

D. he wanted to earn a lot of money.

Question 15. Why does David think he might retire early?

A. He wants to stop working when he is a millionaire.

B. You have to be young to write computer programs.

C. He thinks his firm might go bankrupt.

D. He thinks computer games might not always sell so well.

Question 16. The word " pessimistic " in the reading passage probably means_______

A. easy

B. negative

C. optimistic

D. positive

Question 17. The word " releases " in the reading passage can be replaced by_______

A. imports

B. holds

C. discharges

D. dissolves

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 18.

A. hated

B. watched

C. decided

D. wanted

Question 19.

A. group

B. couple

C. double

D. trouble

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 20. Of the two sisters, Thuy Kieu is the _______ .

A. eldest

B. elder

C. eldly

D. most eldly

Question 21. All applicants _______ hand in their application forms by Friday at the latest.

A. may

B. must

C. ought

D. might.

Question 22. At the end of the film, the young prince _______ in love with a reporter.

A. felt    B. made    C. fell    D. got

Question 23. As we wanted to be close to_______nature, we moved to the countryside.

A. Ø    B. a    C. an    D. the

Question 24. Sex before _______ is strongly disapproved in some cultures.

A. get married

B. marry

C. marriage

D. married

Question 25. Those _______ boys often play tricks on their friends.

A. mischievous

B. obedient

C. honest

D. well-behaved

Question 26. The child _______ parents both died is called an orphan.

A. which

B. who

C. that

D. whose

Question 27. You were wrong _______ her for something she didn't do.

A. criticizing

B. so as to criticize

C. to criticize

D. that criticizing

Question 28. He is going to marry a _______ girl next month .

A. tall pretty English

B. pretty tall English

C. pretty English tall

D. tall English pretty

Question 29. Who will _______ your baby when you are at work?

A. take after

B. take on

C. take over

D. take care of

Question 30. Not until a few years ago_______ playing football .

A. did he start

B. he has started

C. he started

D. had he started

Question 31. Mary is very_______ and caring. - I think she would make a good nurse.

A. mischievous

B. effect

C. efficient

D. disobedient

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 32. You will be home and dry in the interview if you have good qualifications and wide experience.

A. be successful

B. be unsuccessful

C. be satisfied

D. be unsatisfied

Question 33. She denied having stolen his mother's money.

A. refused

B. admitted

C. insisted on

D. reminded

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 34.

A. interesting

B. photocopy

C. difficult

D. effective

Question 35.

A. singer

B. future

C. reply

D. answer

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 36. Not until all their demands had been turned down did the workers decide to go on strike for more welfair.

A. rejected

B. sacked

C. reviewed

D. detected

Question 37. If the manager were here, he would sign your paper immediately

A. right ahead

B. currently

C. formally

D. right away

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 38 to 45.

A rather surprisingly geographical feature of Antarctica is that a huge freshwater lake, one of the world's largest and deepest, lies hidden there under four kilometers of ice. Now known as Lake Vostok, this huge body of water is located under the ice block that comprises Antarctica. The lake is able to exist in its unfrozen state beneath this block of ice because its waters are warmed by geothermal heat from the earth's core. The thick glacier above Lake Vostok actually insulates it from the frigid temperature (the lowest ever recorded on Earth) on the surface.

The lake was first discovered in the 1970s while a research team was conducting an aerial survey of the area. Radio waves from the survey equipment penetrated the ice and revealed a body of water of indeterminate size. It was not until much more recently that data collected by satellite made scientist aware of the tremendous size of the lake; satellite -borne radar detected an extremely flat region where the ice remains level because it is floating on the water of the lake.

The discovery of such a huge freshwater lake trapped under Antarctic is of interest to the scientific community because of potential that the lake contains ancient microbes that have survived for thousands upon thousands of years, unaffected by factors such as nuclear fallout and elevated ultraviolet light that have affected organisms in more exposed areas. The downside of the discovery, however, lies in the difficulty of conducting research on the lake in such a harsh climate and in the problems associated with obtaining uncontaminated samples from the lake without actually exposing the lake to contamination. Scientists are looking for possible ways to accomplish this.

Question 38. The passage mentions which of the following as a reason for the importance of Lake Vostok?

A. It may contain uncontaminated microbes

B. It can be studied using radio waves

C. It has already been contaminated.

D. It may have elevated levels of ultraviolet light.

Question 39. All of the following are true about the 1970 survey of Antarctica EXCEPT it__

A. was conducted by air

B. made use of radio waves

C. did not measure the exact size of the lake

D. was controlled by a satellite

Question 40. The paragraph following the passage most probably discusses

A. Problems with satellite- borne radar equipment

B. the harsh climate of Antarctica.

C. further discoveries on the surface of Antarctica

D. ways to study Lake Vostok without contaminating it

Question 41. The word "microbes" in paragraph 3 could be best be replaced by which of the following?

A. Pieces of dust

B. Tiny organisms

C. Rays of light

D. Trapped bubbles

Question 42. Which of the following is closet in meaning to "frigid" in paragraph 1?

A. Rarely recorded

B. Extremely cold

C. Never changing

D. Quite harsh

Question 43. The purpose of the passage is to ______

A. explain how Lake Vostok was discovered

B. provide satellite data concerning Antarctica

C. present an expected aspect of Antarctica's geography.

D. discuss future plans for Lake Vostok

Question 44. It can be inferred from the passage that the ice would not be flat if ______

A. radio waves were not used

B. Antarctica were not so cold

C. There were no lake

D. the lake was not so big

Question 45. What is true of Lake Vostok?

A. It is beneath a thick slab of ice

B. It is completely frozen

C. It is heated by the sun

D. It is not a saltwater lake

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 46. Mr Smith is having lunch in a restaurant.

      ~ Mr Smith "Could you bring me some water?" ~ Waiter: "_______"

A. No, thanks.

B. Of course you can.

C. I'm afraid not.

D. Certainly, sir.

Question 47. Mary and John are talking about John's new house.

      ~ Mary: "What a lovely house you have" ~ John: "_______"

A. Thanks. Hope you will drop in.

B. I think so.

C. No problem.

D. Of course, thanks.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 48. "If I were you, I'd ask the teacher for help" he said.

A. He suggested asking the teacher for help.

B. He said if he was me, he would ask the teacher for help.

C. He advised me to ask the teacher for help.

D. He told me that he'd ask the teacher for help.

Question 49. Is it necessary to meet the manager at the airport?

A. Did the manager have to be met at the airport?.

B. Does the manager have to be met at the airport?

C. Is the manager had to be met at the airport?

D. Does the manager have to meet at the airport?

Question 50. He was successful in his career thanks to his parents' support.

A. But for his parents' support, he wouldn't have been successful in his career.

B. If his parents hadn't supported him, he would have been successful in his career.

C. Had it not been for his parents' support, he wouldn't be successful in his career.

D. Had his parents supported him, he wouldn't be successful in his career.

Đáp án

1C	2C	3A	4C	5D
6D	7B	8A	9D	10D
11A	12B	13B	14C	15D
16B	17C	18B	19A	20B
21B	22C	23A	24C	25A
26D	27C	28B	29D	30A
31C	32B	33B	34D	35C
36A	37D	38A	39D	40D
41B	42B	43C	44C	45A
46D	47A	48C	49B	50A

Đề thi Học kì 1 Tiếng anh lớp 12 có đáp án đề số 9

Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo .....

Đề khảo sát chất lượng Học kì 1

Năm học ...

Môn: Tiếng Anh 12

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrases that best fits each of the numbered blanks.

Children in the Netherlands must be at least four years old to (1)_______ primary education. Almost all 4-year-olds (99.3%) in the country indeed attend primary school, (2)________ this is not compulsory until children reach the age of. Primary school is free of charge. In most schools, children are grouped by age in mixed ability classes, with one teacher for all subjects. Primary school consists of 8 groups, thus schooling (3)_______ for 8 years. During the first two years, which is also called kindergarten, children receive an average of 22 hours of (4)______, during the last 6 years children receive an average of 25 hours per week. Schools are open 5 days a week, but children are free on Wednesday afternoon. At the end of primary school, or in group 8, schools advice on secondary school choice. Most schools use a national test to support this advice, for instance the ′Citotoets’, a test (5)_______ by the Central Institute for Test development.

Question 1.

A. afford

B. enter

C. come

D. run

Question 2.

A. although

B. despite

C. inspite

D. due to

Question 3.

A. spends

B. lasts

C. lengthens

D. takes

Question 4.

A. educate

B. educative

C. educator

D. education

Question 5.

A. develop

B. to develop

C. developed

D. developing

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Preparation is a key to a successful interview. Does the idea of going to a job interview make you feel a little nervous? Many people find that it is the hardest part of the employing process. But it is not really true. The more you prepare and practice, the more comfortable you will feel. You should find out as much as possible about the company before you go to the interview. Understand the products that they produce and the services that they provide . It is also good to know who the customers are and who the major competitors are. Practice makes perfect. It will also make you feel more confident and relaxed. So, practice your answers to common. Make a list of questions to ask, too. Almost all interviewers will ask if you have . This is a great opportunity for you to show your keenness, enthusiasm, and knowledge.

Make a great impression . The interview is your chance to show that you are the best person for the job. Your application or resume has already exhibited that you are qualified. Now it is up to you to show how your skills and experience match this position and this company. The employer will be looking and listening to determine if you are a good fit. He site will be looking for a number of different qualities, in addition to the skills that you possess. To make the best impression, dress appropriately; express your strengths; arrive early, by about 10 – 15 minutes; be enthusiastic; shake hands firmly; be an active listener; sit up straight and maintain eye contact; and ask.

After the interview, follow up with a thank-you note. This is a chance for you to restate your interest and how you can benefit the company. Your best bet is to by to time it so that the note gets there before the hiring: decision is made. You should also follow up with a phone call if you do not hear back from the employer within the specified time.

Question 6. The pronoun “it” refers to ________.

A. the job

B. the interview

C. the interviewer

D. the preparation

Question 7. What does the writer advise you to practice?

A. Asking and answering questions related to the job.

B. Making products that the company produces.

C. Providing services that the company serves.

D. Meeting some customers and competitors.

Question 8. Which should not be shown during your interview?

A. Punctuality

B. A firm hand shaking

C. Being properly-dressed

D. Weaknesses

Question 9. What shouldn’t you do to make the best impession?

A. listen actively

B. a firm hand shaking

C. being properly-dressed

D. weakness

Question 10. What does the employer look at to determine whether you are a good fit besides qualification?

A. experience

B. skills

C. qualities

D. all of them

Question 11. You can show your qualifications in the _________.

A. dressing style and punctuality

B. competing with the competitors

C. resume and letter of application

D. eye contact with the interviewer

Question 12. The word “key” is closest in meaning to _________.

A. unnessesary

B. important

C. unessential

D. properly

Question 13. Which is not included in the writer's advice?

A. You should not communicate with the interviewer after the interview.

B. You should make the best impression in the interview.

C. You should write a note to say thanks to the interviewer after the interview.

D. You should telephone the interviewer for any information after the interview.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

University Entrance Examination is very important to Vietnamese students. High school graduates have to take it and get high results to be admitted to universities. The pressure on the candidates remains very high despite the measures that have been taken to reduce the heat around these exams, since securing a place in a state university is considered a major step towards a successful career for young people, especially those from rural areas or disadvantaged families. In the year 2004, it was estimated that nearly 1 million Vietnamese students took the University Entrance Examination, but on average only 1 out of 5 candidates succeeded. Normally, candidates take 3 exam subjects, and each lasts 180 minutes for the fixed group of subjects they choose. There are 4 fixed groups of subjects: Group A: Mathematics, Physics, and Chemistry; Group B: Mathematics, Chemistry and Biology; Group C: Literature, History, and Geography; Group D: Literature, Foreign Language, and Mathematics.

In addition to universities, there are community colleges, art and technology institutes, professional secondary schools, and vocational schools which offer degrees or certificates from a-few-month to 2-year courses.

According to Vietnam’s Ministry of Education and Training, there are currently 23 non-public universities, accounting for 11% of the total number of universities. These non-public universities are currently training 119,464 students or 11.7% of the total number of students. The government is planning to increase the number of non-public universities to 30% by 2007.

Question 14. University Entrance Examination in Vietnam is very _________.

A. interesting

B. stressful

C. free

D. easy

Question 15. The word “those” refers to _________.

A. exam subjects

B. young people

C. universities

D. examinations

Question 16. In 2004, the proportion of the students who got success in University Entrance Examination was about _________ percent.

A. 5     B. 10     C. 20    D. 50

Question 17. Which sentence refers to the University Entrance Examination in Vietnam?

A. Students find it easy to get success in the University Entrance Examination.

B. Maths is compulsory in the University Entrance Examination.

C. Students are not allowed to choose their exam subjects.

D. There are four fixed groups of exam subjects for students to choose.

Question 18. The word “non-public” can be replaced by ________.

A. state

B. goverment

C. dependent

D. private

Question 19. Which sentence is NOT true to the passage?

A. Getting admitted to universities is very important for young people to achieve success in their job.

B. High school graduates don’t have to take any exam in order to get a place in a university

C. It takes more than 2 years to complete vocational courses.

D. More than 1 million VNese students took the University Entrance Exam in 2004.

Question 20. According to the passage ________.

A. the Vietnamese government will close all non-public universities by next year.

B. the Vietnamese government does not appreciate non-public universities

C. the Vietnamese government encourages the establishing of non-public universities.

D. Vietnamese students have no alternative to continue their higher study besides universities.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 21. The situation seems to be changing minute by minute.

A. from time to time

B. time after time

C. again and again

D. very rapidly

Question 22. Now I understand why you moved out of that house.

A. I am surprised

B. it frustrates me

C. I am intrigued

D. it makes sense to me

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 23. In my judgement, I think Hem is the best physicist among the scientists of the SEA region.

A.I think

B.the best

C.among

D.the SEA region.

Question 24. It is believed that in the near future robots will be used to doing things such as cooking.

A.It is believed

B.in the near future

C.be used to doing

D.cooking.

Question 25. Passengers are required to arrive to the gate fifteen minutes before departure time.

A.are required

B.arrive to

C.before

D.departure time

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 26. Unlike the other Asian states, Singapore has ________ raw materials.

A. Hardly any

B. any hardly

C. hardly no

D. hardly some

Question 27. They are conducting a wide _________ of surveys throughout VN.

A. Collection

B. range

C. selection

D. group

Question 28. What do you mean, he’s watching television? He’s ______ to be washing the car.

A. Supposed

B. hoped

C. expected

D. thought

Question 29. Dick tried to place the _______ on others for his mistakes.

A. Blame

B. denial

C. complaint

D. hurt

Question 30. It _______ out that the major had brided several councils to vote for him.

A. Resulted

B. pointed

C. broke

D. turned

Question 31. It never ________ his mind that dishonesty would be discovered.

A. Crossed

B. came

C. spunk

D. passed

Question 32. Helen is ________ seafood, so she never tries these delicious dishes.

A. Allergic to

B. tired of

C. keen on

D. preferable to

Question 33. _______ the doctors know that it is very difficult to save the patient’s life, they will try their best.

A. But

B. although

C. despite

D. however

Question 34. The young girl _______ down completely on hearing of he father’s death.

A. Broke

B. fell

C. turned

D. went

Question 35. The mother ________ her son. She gives him whatever he wants.

A. Spoils

B. harms

C. ruins

D. damages

Question 36. _________, he couldn’t finish that test in 60 minutes.

A. As the boy was intelligent

B. As intelligent the boy was

C. intelligent as the boy was

D. intelligent as was the boy

Question 37. The concert didn’t come ________ our expectations.

A. Up against

B. up with

C. up to

D. round

Question 38. – “I can’t see the stage very well from here.” – “________.”

A. Neither can’t I.

B. So do I

C. Neither I can

D. I can’t either

Question 39. – “Do you mind if I use your phone?” – “__________.”

A. Not at all. Help yourself.

B. Yes, certainly.

C. Sorry, I have no idea.

D. You can say that again.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 40. Population growth rates vary among regions and even among countries within the same region.

A. Stay unchanged

B. restrain

C. fluctuate

D. remain unstable

Question 41. We’d better speed up if we want to get there in time.

A. Turn down

B. slow down

C. put down

D. lie down

Mark the letter A,B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 42. If I had been home, everything would not have been that dramatic.

A. When I am home, everythings goes right.

B. Things would not be dramatized with my pressure.

C. Things weren’t worse because I was not home.

D. Everything goes wrong when I am not at home.

Question 43. Majoring in IT was not my priority.

A. My boss is not major in IT.

B. I liked something else more than IT.

C. I preferred IT to other courses.

D. I am not interested in IT.

Question 44. Our system is that the losing side pays for the hire of the basketball court.

A. If our side loses, then we will have to pay for the hire of the basketball court.

B. With us it’s the winners, not the losers who have to pay for the hire of the basketball court.

C. The losers obviously expect the winning side to pay for the hire of the basketball court.

D. The way we do it is, whichever side loses, that side pays for the hire of the basketball court.

Question 45. Smoking is an extremely harmful habit. You should give it up immediately.

A. You should give up smoking immediately and you will fall into an extremely harmful habit.

B. When you give up smoking immediately, you will affect your health with this harmful habit.

C. Stop your smoking immediately so it will become one of your extremely harmful habits.

D. As smoking is an extremly harmful habit, you should give it up immediately.

Question 46. He behaved in a very strange way. That surprised me a lot.

A. He behaved very strangely, which surprised me very much.

B. His behavior was very strange, that surprised me most.

C. I was almost not surprised by his strange behavior.

D. What almost surprised me was the strange way he behaved.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 47.

A. physical

B. achievement

C. goverment

D. rational

Question 48.

A. university

B. applications

C. technology

D. entertainment

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 49.

A. average

B. indicate

C. application

D. grade

Question 50.

A. laughed

B. weighed

C. helped

D. missed

Đáp án

1B	2A	3B	4D	5C
6B	7A	8D	9D	10D
11C	12B	13A	14B	15B
16C	17D	18D	19D	20C
21D	22D	23A	24C	25B
26A	27B	28D	29B	30D
31A	32A	33B	34B	35A
36C	37B	38D	39A	40A
41B	42B	43B	44D	45D
46A	47B	48C	49C	50B

Đề thi Học kì 1 Tiếng anh lớp 12 có đáp án đề số 10

Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo .....

Đề khảo sát chất lượng Học kì 1

Năm học ...

Môn: Tiếng Anh 12

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 1.

A. campus

B. bamboo

C. rainfall

D. wildlife

Question 2.

A. applicant

B. maximum

C. counterpart

D. inflation

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 3.

A. groove

B. kangaroo

C. goose

D. flood

Question 4.

A. concentrates

B. develops

C. considers

D. paragraphs

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 5. If people drove more carefully, there______________ so many accidents on the road.

A. would not be

B. will not be

C. wouldn’t have been

D. aren’t

Question 6. When he arrived at the station, his train.

A. had already leaved

B. had already left

C. had had left

D. had already leaving

Question 7. This is the second time she's been here, ______________?

A. isn't this

B. has she

C. isn't it

D. hasn't she

Question 8. She expected _______ her boyfriend at the station but he wasn’t there.

A. to be meeting

B. meeting

C. to be met

D. to meet

Question 9. He ______ to the doctor after the accident, but he continued to play instead.

A. must have gone

B. needn’t have gone

C. shouldn’t have gone

D. should have gone

Question 10. The pianist ______ at the concert last night is internationally famous.

A. playing

B. played

C. who plays

D. whom played

Question 11. Taking part in the Advanced Engineering project gave him an opportunity to use his ______ to help his career.

A. creative

B. creativity

C. create

D. creatively

Question 12. Mary enjoys reading ________, adventure, and whatever else she can either buy or borrow.

A. romance

B. romantic

C. romanticize

D. romanticism

Question 13. ______ about gene-related diseases has increased is welcome news.

A. Scientific knowledge

B. It was scientific knowledge

C. Though scientific knowledge

D. That scientific knowledge

Question 14. Knocking on closed doors before entering can be a great way for children to practice _________ behaviors.

A. respecting

B. respected

C. respectful

D. respective

Question 15. If you want a flat in the centre of the city you have to pay through the ________ for it.

A. teeth

B. back of your head

C. nose

D. arm

Question 16. The H5N1 infected patients have to _______ others to prevent the virus from spreading

A. Take care of

B. get away

C. look after

D. stay away from

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 17. The teacher gave some hints on what could come out for the examination.

A. effects

B. symptoms

C. suggestions

D. demonstrations

Question 18. In the world of models, every model girl tries every trick in the book to stop others from succeeding.

A. every available method

B. all kinds of tricks

C. every story plot

D. all styles of writing

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 19. The consequences of the typhoon were disastrous due to the lack of precautionary measures.

A. physical

B. severe

C. beneficial

D. damaging

Question 20. I’m sorry I can’t come out this weekend – I’m up to my ears in work.

A. very busy

B. very bored

C. very scared

D. very idle

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following exchanges.

Question 21. Hoa is asking Hai, who is sitting at a corner of the room, seeming too shy.

         - Hoa: “Why aren’t you taking part in our activities? _______” - Hai: “Yes. I can. Certainly.”

A. Could you please show me how to get to the nearest post office?

B. Shall I take your hat off?

C. Can I help you?

D. Can you help me with these decorations?

Question 22. Mary and Nhung are drinking coffee and they are discussing about their projects

         - Mary: “ How is your project going, Nhung?” - Nhung: “……………….”

A. I’m working with John and Sally

B. What? Is it going to finish soon?

C. Great! Couldn’t be better.

D. Do you really want to go?

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 23 to 27.

Every year, thousands of people travel to Britain in order to improve their standard of English. For many, however, this can be a painful experience due to the fact that it involves (23) _______ a strange school, staying in sometimes unpleasant accommodation and living in an unfamiliar culture. One answer to these (24) _______ is the Homestay method. With this, students are each assigned a teacher suited to their language requirements and interests. As well as giving individual tuition, the teacher provides the student (25 ) _______ information about what activities are available locally and takes them on trips. Students get between ten and twenty hours of tuition a week and are also expected to join in the family’s daily activities. The students speak English at all times and therefore learn (26) _______ to use the language in everyday situations. Homestay programmes usually last for up to four weeks. (27) _______ costs are higher than of regular language schools, students can feel confident that they will be receiving top-class language teaching in a safe and pleasant environment.

Question 23.

A. studying

B. attending

C. going

D. learning

Question 24.

A. problems

B. solutions

C. methods

D. ways

Question 25.

A. to

B. for

C. with

D. about

Question 26.

A. what

B. that

C. which

D. how

Question 27.

A. Although

B. Despite

C. Because

D. Since

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 28 to 34.

In 1972, a century after the first national park in the United States was established at Yellowstone, legislation was passed to create the National Marine Sanctuaries Program. The intent of this legislation was to provide protection to selected coastal habitats similar To that existing for land areas designated as national parks. The designation of an areas a marine sanctuary indicates that it is a protected area, just as a national park is. People are permitted to visit and observe there, but living organisms and their environments may not be harmed or removed.

The National Marine Sanctuaries Program is administered by the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration, a branch of the United States Department of Commerce. Initially, 70 sites were proposed as candidates for sanctuary status. Two and a half decades later, only fifteen sanctuaries had been designated, with half of these established after 1978. They range in size from the very small (less than I square kilometer) Fagatele Bay National Marine Sanctuary in American Samoa to the Monterey Bay National Marine Sanctuary in California, extending over 15,744 square kilometers.

The National Marine Sanctuaries Program is a crucial part of new management practices in which whole communities of species, and not just individual species, are offered some degree of protection from habitat degradation and overexploitation. Only in this way can a reasonable degree of marine species diversity be maintained in a setting that also maintains the natural interrelationships that exist among these species.

Several other types of marine protected areas exist in the United States and other countries. The National Estuarine Research Reserve System, managed by the United States government, includes 23 designated and protected estuaries. Outside the United States, marine protected-area programs exist as marine parks, reserves, and preserves. Over 100 designated areas exist around the periphery of the Caribbean Sea. Others range from the well-known Australian Great Barrer Reef Marine Park to lesser-known parks in countries such as Thailand and Indonesia, where tourism is placing growing pressures on fragile coral reef systems. As state, national, and international agencies come to recognize the importance of conserving marine biodiversity, marine projected areas. whether as sanctuaries, parks, or estuarine reserves, will play an increasingly important role in preserving that diversity.

Question 28. What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. Differences among marine parks, sanctuaries, and reserves

B. Various marine conservation programs

C. International agreements on coastal protection

D. Similarities between land and sea protected environments

Question 29. The word “intent” in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to _______

A. repetition

B. approval

C. goal

D. revision

Question 30. The word “administered” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to _______

A. managed

B. recognized

C. opposed

D. justified

Question 31. The passage mentions which of the following as a threat to marine areas outside the United States?

A. Limitations in financial support

B. The use of marine species as food

C. Variability of the climate

D. Increases in tourism

Question 32. The word “periphery” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to _______

A. depth

B. landmass

C. warm habitat

D. outer edge

Question 33. According to the passage, when was the National Marine Sanctuaries Program established?

A. Before 1972

B. After 1987

C. One hundred years before national parks were established

D. One hundred years after Yellowstone National Park was established

Question 34. According to the passage, all of the following are achievements of the National Marine Sanctuaries Program EXCEPT

A. the discovery of several new marine organisms

B. the preservation of connections between individual marine species

C. the protection of coastal habitats

D. the establishment of areas where the public can observe marine life

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42.

Improving girls’ educational levels has been demonstrated to have clear impacts on the health and economic future of young women, which in turn improves the prospects of their entire community. The infant mortality rate of babies whose mothers have received primary education is half that of children whose mothers are illiterate. In the poorest countries of the world, 50% of girls do not attend secondary school. Yet, research shows that every extra year of school for girls increases their lifetime income by 15%.

Improving female education, and thus the earning potential of women, improves the standard of living for their own children, as women invest more of their income in their families than men do. Yet, many barriers to education for girls remain. In some African countries, such as Burkina Faso, girls are unlikely to attend school for such basic reasons as a lack of private latrine facilities for girls.

Higher attendance rates of high schools and university education among women, particularly in developing countries, have helped them make inroads to professional careers with better-paying salaries and wages. Education increases a woman's (and her partner and the family's) level of health and health awareness. Furthering women's levels of education and advanced training also tends to lead to later ages of initiation of sexual activity and first intercourse, later age at first marriage, and later age at first childbirth, as well as an increased likelihood to remain single, have no children, or have no formal marriage and alternatively, have increasing levels of long-term partnerships. It can lead to higher rates of barrier and chemical contraceptive use (and a lower level of sexually transmitted infections among women and their partners and children), and can increase the level of resources available to women who divorce or are in a situation of domestic violence. It has been shown, in addition, to increase women's communication with their partners and their employers, and to improve rates of civic participation such as voting or the holding of office.

Question 35. What can be the best title of the reading passage?

A. Education and Women's Empowerment

B. Woman's Rights to Lifelong Education

C. Female Education and Social Benefit

D. Education and Violence Against Women

Question 36. Which of the following statements is true according to the first paragraph

A. Many children in Asia have died because of their mother's ignorance

B. Children whose mother are illiterate are unable to grow healthily

C. The higher their education level is, the more money women ear

D. It is their husbands who make women improve their education level

Question 37. It is implied in the first paragraph that ______

A. the husband in a family takes little responsibility in rearing the children

B. there are numerous reasons for women not to come to class worldwide

C. the children's standard of living largely depends on their mother's income

D. the mother in a family makes every effort to raise the children effectively

Question 38. The word "barriers" in the passage is closest in meaning to _____

A. challenges

B. problems

C. difficulties

D. limits

Question 39. The phrase "make inroads into" in the passage can be best replaced with ______

A. make progress in

B. succeed in taking

C. celebrate achievement in

D. take the chance in

Question 40. According to the passage, furthering women's levels of education and advanced training does not result in

A. an increased likelihood to remain single among women

B. higher rates of barrier and chemical contraceptive use

C. improved rates of civic participation among women

D. an increased level of health awareness for the husbands

Đáp án

1A	2D	3D	4C	5A
6B	7C	8D	9D	10A
11B	12A	13D	14C	15C
16D	17C	18A	19C	20D
21D	22C	23B	24A	25C
26D	27A	28B	29C	30A
31D	32D	33D	34A	35C
36C	37B	38C	39B	40D

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