Đề cương Học kì 2 Tiếng Anh lớp 12 năm 2022 chi tiết nhất

Đề cương Học kì 2 Tiếng Anh lớp 12 năm 2022 chi tiết nhất

Đề số 1

Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo .....

Đề khảo sát chất lượng Học kì 2

Năm học 2022 - 2023

Môn: Tiếng Anh 12

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

I.  Multiple choice

1. As all field players are only allowed to touch the ball with one hand at a time, they must develop the ability  to catch and                the ball with either hand.

A. throw                       

B. point                        

C. score                        

D. cross

2. People who exercise frequently have better physical endurance than those         

A. who doesn’t            

B. who don’t              

C. that doesn’t             

D. which don’t

3. The cuisine of France is                .

A. more famous than that of England               

B. famous than the cuisine of England

C. more famous than which of England           

D. as famous than that of England

4.  Everyone          what they have to do, don’t they?

A. know                       

B. knows                      

C. knew                       

D. have known

5. Human beings have a great influence               our environment.

A.  at                             

B. about                       

C. on                            

D. in

6. Where can people play                 water polo?

A.  a                              

B. an                            

C. the                           

D. x

7. Different people never read a book in                  same way.

A.  a                              

B. an                            

C. the                           

D. x

8. Human beings are           for the changes in the environment.

A. account                    

B. responsible              

C. blame                       

D. faulty

9. His fatal disease made him to pursue that struggle for                  .

A.  liveliness                  

B. hope                        

C. survival                    

D. life

10. Tommy likes the books that he borrowed from the school library very much. He has read them with _________.

A.  entertainment          

B. romance                   

C. tasting                     

D. pleasure

11. If the score is tied at the end of regulation play, two               periods of three minutes each are played.

A.  half                          

B. halftime                   

C. quarter                     

D. overtime

12. We missed the beginning of the play  because it               when we arrived.

A. have started            

B. already started         

C. had already started       

D. had started already

13. Ellen                and sang her song.

A. nodded to the audience   

B. nodded the audience

C. was nodding the audience   

D. was nodded to the audience

14.The escaped prisoner  is believed                 _ on an island.

A. being lived              

B. to be living              

C. having lived                   

D. that living

15. He was sacked because he had worked             .

A. responsible              

B. irresponsible            

C. responsibly                     

D. irresponsibly

16. Many young men prefer scuba-diving because it is                .

A. adventure                

B. adventurous            

C. adventurously                

D. adventurist

17. The Red Cross organizes and  leads  relief assistance missions after               , such as natural disasters, man- made disasters, and epidemics.

A. emergent                 

B. emergencies             

C. emergently                     

D. emergence

18. One of the tasks of the Red Cross is also to support local                 care projects.

A. health                      

B. healthy                    

C. healthful                         

D. healthily

19. Sue: “I love pop music”

Alice: “              ”

A. I do, too                

B. No, I won’t              

C. Yes, I like it                    

D. Neither do I

20.  A: Do you believe that we are destroying our environment?      

B:                                                                                                       

A.  Yes, I believe in you.       

B. That's exactly what I think.

C. I believe in anything we do.

D. It's certain that our environment is being destroyed.

21. The player of the visiting team scored the only goal in               first half.

A. the                               

B. a                             

C. an                           

D. Ø

22. Women's contribution to our society has been               better these days.

A. differently                   

B. naturally                

C. intellectually          

D. significantly

23. She sometimes                 to turn off the computer before she            home.

A. forgot / had gone      

B. has forgot / is going    

C. forgets / goes   

D. is forgetting / has gone

24. Many Asian people _______like hunting elephants for their ivory and tigers for their bones.

A. particular                     

B. particularity           

C. particularly           

D. particularize

25.  My teacher wanted to know _____the play called “Carmen”.

A.  if I saw            

B. whether I have seen          

C. if I had seen      

D. whether had I seen

II.  Phonetics

26.  Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others

A. casual                                

B. case                        

C. cashier                   

D. cash

27.  Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others

A. success                               

B. enthusiast              

C. support                  

D. surprise

28. Choose the word which is stressed differently from the rest.

A. employment                       

B. remember               

C. concentrate            

D. position

29.  Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others

A. average                  

B. indicate                  

C. application             

D. grade

30.  Choose the word which is stressed differently from the rest.

A.  receive                           

B. proper                    

C. process                  

D. factor

III.  Reading: Fill in each numbered blank with one suitable word.

Under the global "health for all" strategy, WHO (the World Health Organization) and its members have placed special emphasis (31)  the developing countries. Nevertheless, the benefits of WHO's international  health work are benefited by all countries, including the most developed ones. For example, all nations have benefited from their contributions to the WHO programs  that led  to the global (32)     of smallpox and to   better and cheaper ways of controlling tuberculosis.

(33)            is  a  key  word  in  WHO's  programs.  The  organization  believes  that  immunization,  (34) prevents the six major diseases of childhood-diphtheria, measles, poliomyelitis, tetanus, tuberculosis, and whooping cough-should be (35) to all children who need it.

31.

A. on                

B. in                          

C. for                        

D. with

32.

A campaign     

B. spread                  

C. eradication           

D. epidemic

33.

A. Prevent       

B. Prevention            

C. Preventable          

D. Prevented

34.

A. whom          

B. whose                   

C. that                      

D. which

35.

A. prepared      

B. concerned            

C. interested             

D. available

VI. Reading comprehension

There is very little documentation about the origins of water polo. It is known, however, that the sport originated in the rivers and lakes of mid-19th century England as an aquatic version of rugby. Early games used an inflated rubber ball that came from India known as a "pulu" (the single Indian word for all "balls").

Pronounced "polo" by the English, both the game and the ball became known as "water polo." To attract more spectators to swimming exhibitions, the London Swimming Association designed a set of water polo rules for indoor swimming pools in 1870. At first, players scored by planting the ball on the end of the pool with both hands. A favorite trick of the players was to place the five-to-nine inch rubber ball inside their swimming suit and dive under the murky water, they would then appear again as close to the goal as possible. The introduction of the rules by Scottish players changed the nature of water polo. It became a game that emphasized swimming, speed and passing. Scottish rules moved from a rugby variant to a soccer style of play. Goals became a cage of 10x 3 feet and a goal could be scored by being thrown. Players could only be tackled when they "held" the ball and the ball could no longer be taken under water. The small rubber ball was replaced by a leather soccer ball. If the player came up too near the goal, he was promptly jumped on by the goalie, who was permitted to stand on the pool deck. Games were often nothing more than gang fights in the water as players ignored the ball, preferring underwater wrestling matches that usually ended with one man floating to the surface unconscious. Water polo was first played in the USA in 1888. The game featured the old rugby style of play which resembled American football in the water. "American style" water polo became very popular and by the late 1890s was played in such venues as Madison Square Garden and Boston's Mechanics Hall, attracting 14,000 spectators to national championship games.

36.  According to the text,              .

A.  the origins of water polo are written thoroughly in a lot of documents

B.  water polo is an aquatic version of rugby

C.  water polo first appeared somewhere outside England

D.  people have played water polo since the early 19th century.

37.  The present rules of water polo were invented               .

A. by Scottish players            

B. by Indian players

C. the London Swimming Association

D. in 1870

38.  In water polo, the players score a goal by                .

A. swimming              

B. passing                   

C. catching                 

D. throwing

39. The present water polo ball is made of                .

A. rubber                    

B. leather                    

C. bone                      

D. wood

40. Water polo became popular in America in                .

A. the middle of the 19th century                 

B. in 1870                 

C. in 1888

D. by the late 1890s

ĐÁP ÁN

Câu	Đáp án	Câu	Đáp án
1.	A	24.	C
2.	B	25.	C
3.	A	26.	B
4.	B	27.	B
5.	C	28.	C
6.	D	29.	A
7.	C	30.	A
8.	B	31.	A.on
9.	C	32.	C.eradication
10.	D	33.	B.Prevention
11.	D	34.	D.which
12.	C	35.	D.available
13.	A	36.	D.people have played…
14.	B	37.	A.by Scottish…
15.	D	38.	D.throwing
16.	B	39.	A.rubber
17.	B	40.	D.by the late 1890s
18.	A
19.	A
20.	B
21.	A
22.	D
23.	C

Đề số 2

Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo .....

Đề khảo sát chất lượng Học kì 2

Năm học 2022 - 2023

Môn: Tiếng Anh 12

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1:

A. choice       

B. champagne                        

C. change                              

D. channel

Question 2:

A. envelops   

B. days            

C. cities              

D. areas

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.

Question 3: The way the care-taker treated those little children was deplorable. She must be punished for what she did.

A. respectable               

B. unacceptable                     

C. mischievous                      

D. satisfactory

Question 4: My parents’ warnings didn’t deter me from choosing the job of my dreams.

A. influence                  

B. inspire                               

C. discourage                        

D. reassure

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 5: Two students Peter and Anny are talking about women’s role.

 ~ Peter: " In my opinion, women would not go to work." ~ Anny: "............."

A. What nonsense!       

B. Yes, I don’t agree             

C. Yes, I do                          

D. Yes, it was ever

Question 6: ~ Cindy: "Your hairstyle is terrific, Mary!" ~  Mary: ".............."

A. Thanks, but I’m afraid   

B. Yes, all right.

C. Never mention it 

D. Thanks, Cindy. I had it done yesterday.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other

three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions from.

Question 7:

A. emotion    

B. modernize                         

C. impressive                        

D. identity

Question 8:

A. industrial 

B. ornamental                        

C. courageous                       

D. computer

Mark the letter A, B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 9: What happened in that city were a reaction from city workers, including firemen and policemen who had been laid off from their jobs.

A. were                         

B. What happened                 

C. their                                  

D. including

Question 10: When precipitation occurs, some of it evaporates, some runs off the surface it strikes, and some sinking into the ground.

A. some                         

B. the                                   

C. sinking          

D. When

Question 11: Opened the letter from her boyfriend, she felt extremely excited.

A. excited.                    

B. felt           

C. Opened                            

D. from

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions from.

Question 12: Jack was overconfident. Therefore, he ruined our plan completely.

A. That was Jack’s overconfidence ruined our plan completely.

B. It was Jack’s overconfidence ruined our plan completely.

C. It was because Jack’s overconfidence that ruined our plan completely.

D. Jack was overconfident, which ruined our plan completely.

Question 13: Her living conditions were difficult. However, she studied very well.

A. Although she lived in difficult conditions, but she studied very well.

B. She studied very well in spite of her difficult living conditions.

C. Difficult as her living conditions, she studied very well.

D. She studied very well thanks to the fact that she lived in difficult conditions.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from.

   Duncan Phyfe made some of the most beautiful furniture found in America. His family name was originally Fife, and he was born in Scotland in 1768. In 1784, the Fife family immigrated to Albany, New York where Duncan’s father opened a cabinetmaking shop. Duncan followed his father’s footsteps and was apprenticed to a cabinetmaker. After completing his training, Duncan moved to New York City.

   Duncan Fife was first mentioned in the 1792 NYC Directory as a furniture "joiner" in business at 2 Broad Street. Two years later, he moved, expanded his business, and changed his name to Phyfe. He was aquiet-living, God-fearing young man who felt his new name would probably appeal to potential customers who were definitely anti-British in this post-Revolutionary War period. Duncan Phyfe’s name distinguished him from his contemporaries. Although the new spelling helped him better compete with French emigrant craftsmen, his new name had more to do with hanging it on a sign over his door stoop.

   The artisans and merchants who came to America discovered a unique kind of freedom. They were no longer restricted by class and guild traditions of Europe. For the first time in history, a man learned that by working hard, he could build his business based on his own name and reputation and quality of work.

   Phyfe’s workshop apparently took off immediately. At the peak of his success, Phyfe employed 100 craftsmen. Some economic historians point to Phyfe as having employed division of labour and an assembly line. What his workshop produced shows Phyfe’s absolute dedication to quality in workmanship. Each piece of furniture was made of the best available materials. He was reported to have paid $1,000 for a single Santo Domingo mahogany log.

   Phyfe did not create new designs. Rather, he borrowed from a broad range of the period’s classical styles, Empire, Sheraton, Regency, and French Classical among them. Nevertheless, Phyfe’s high quality craftsmanship established him as America’s patriotic interpreter of European design in the late eighteenth and early nineteenth centuries.

   Although the number of pieces produced by Duncan Phyfe’s workshop is enormous, comparatively few marked or labeled pieces have been found extant. In antiques shops and auctions, collectors have paid $11,000 for a card table, $24,200 for a tea table, and $93,500 for a sewing table.

Question 14: Which choice is closest in meaning to the word "guild" in paragraph 4?

A. Political party of emigrants

B. Organization of craftsmen

C. Verdict of a jury

D. Immigrants’ club

Question 15: The author implies that.......

A. furniture from Duncan Phyfe’s workshop costs a lot of money today.

B. furniture from Duncan Phyfe’s workshop was ignored by New Yorkers.

C. furniture from Duncan Phyfe’s workshop no longer exists.

D. furniture from Duncan Phyfe’s workshop was made by his father.

Question 16: What is the main idea of the passage?

A. Duncan Phyfe’s cabinetmaking designs.

B. Duncan Phyfe’s life and career.

C. The business of cabinetmaking.

D. The significance of Duncan Phyfe’s name.

Question 17: Based on the information in the passage, what can be inferred about Duncan Phyfe’s death?

A. He died in Albany.

B. He died in Scotland.

C. He died in the eighteenth century.

D. He died in the nineteenth century.

Question 18: According to the passage, which of the following does the author imply?

A. Duncan Fife and his father had the same first name.

B. Duncan Phyfe made over 100 different kinds of tables.

C. Duncan Fife and his father were in the same business.

D. Duncan Fife worked for his father in Scotland.

Question 19: Which choice does the word "it" in paragraph 3 refer to?

A. His spelling              

B. His French                        

C. His chair                           

D. His name

Question 20: In his business, Duncan Phyfe used all of the following EXCEPT.......

A. the least expensive materials

B. an assembly line

C. continental designs

D. division of labour

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning

to each of the following questions.

Question 21: When I picked up my book I found that the cover had been torn.

A. Picking up my book, the cover had been torn.

B. Picked up, I saw that the cover of the book was torn.

C. On picking up the book, I saw that the cover had been torn.

D. The cover had been torn when my book picked up.

Question 22: "I’ll speak calmly. I really will!" he said.

A. He reminded me to speak calmly.

B. He offered to speak calmly.

C. He refused to speak calmly.

D. He promised to speak calmly.

Question 23: We had no sooner got to know our neighbours than they moved away.

A. If our new neighbours had stayed longer, we would have got to know them better.

B. Soon after we got to know our new neighbours, we stopped having contact with them.

C. Hardly had we become acquainted with our new neighbours when they went somewhere else to live.

D. Once we had got used to our new neighbours, they moved somewhere else.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.

Question 24: A chronic lack of sleep may make us irritable and reduces our motivation to work.

A. calm                         

B. miserable                           

C. responsive                        

D. uncomfortable

Question 25: For most male spiders courtship is a perilous procedure, for they may be eaten by females.

A. safe                          

B. complicated                      

C. peculiar                             

D. dangerous

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

   The work of women has been economically vital since prehistory, although their contributions have varied according to the structure, needs, customs, and attitudes of society.

   In prehistoric times, women and men participated almost equally in hunting and gathering activities to obtain food. With the development of agricultural communities, women’s work revolved more around the home. As urban centres developed, women sold or traded goods in the marketplace.

   From ancient to modern times, four generalizations can be made about women's paid work. Women have worked because of economic necessity; poor women in particular worked outside the home whether they were unmarried or married, and especially if their husbands were unable to sustain the family solely through their own work. Women’s indentured work has often been similar to their work at home. Women have maintained the primary responsibility for raising children, regardless of their paid work. Women have historically been paid less than men and have been allocated lower-status work

   Some major changes are now occurring in industrial nations, including the steadily increasing proportion of women in the labor force; decreasing family responsibilities (due to both smaller family size and technological innovation in the home); higher levels of education for women; and more middle and upper-income women working for pay or for job satisfaction. Statistically, they have not yet achieved parity of pay or senior appointments in the workplace in any nation.

   Artisans working in their own homes not infrequently used the labor of their families. This custom was so prevalent during the Middle Ages, craft guilds of the period, including some that otherwise excluded women, often admitted to membership the widows of guild members, providing they met professional requirements. Dressmaking and lacemaking guilds were composed exclusively of women.

   Gradually, the guilds were replaced by the putting-out system, whereby tools and materials were distributed to workers by merchants; the workers then produced articles on a piecework basis in their homes. During the 18th and early 19th centuries, as the Industrial Revolution developed, the putting-out system slowly declined. Goods that had been produced by hand in the home were manufactured by machine under the factory system. Women competed more with men for some jobs, but were concentrated primarily in textile mills and clothing factories. Manufacturers often favored women employees because of relevant skills and lower wages, and also because early trade union organization tended to occur first among men.

   Employees in sweatshops were also preponderantly women. The result was to institutionalize systems of low pay, poor working conditions, long hours, and other abuses, which along with child labor presented some of the worst examples of worker exploitation in early industrial capitalism. Minimum wage legislation and other protective laws, when introduced, concentrated particularly on the alleviation of these abuses of working women.

   Women workers in business and the professions, the so-called white-collar occupations, suffered less from poor conditions of work and exploitative labor, but were denied equality of pay and opportunity. The growing use of the typewriter and the telephone after the 1870s created two new employment niches for women, as typists and telephonists, but in both fields the result was again to institutionalize a permanent category of low-paid, low-status women’s work.

Question 26: When the farming communities developed, women worked......

A. less at home             

B. more at home                    

C. in groups                         

D. more outside

Question 27: The word "sweatshops" suggests.......

A. hard work                

B. harmful work                    

C. factory work                    

D. workshop

Question 28: With better education and less family burden, women........

A. have become more influential in their companies

B. have not yet achieved high status in the workplace

C. have enjoyed equal status in the workplace

D. have been respected at home and in the workplace

Question 29: The word "indentured" in this context may mostly means.......

A. in the kitchen           

B. inside the home                 

C. outside the kitchen           

D. outside the home

Question 30: Under the "putting-out system", the workers........

A. provide their factories with raw materials 

B. bought materials to manufacture goods

C. turn their homes into factories

D. are provided with tools to produce goods at home

Question 31: Manufacturers tended to employ women because........

A. they did not have to pay for high insurance           

B. they could cheat them more easily

C. they did not have to pay high wages

D. women demanded less than men

Question 32: Although women cannot avoid the task of bringing up children, .......

A. they can be breadwinners as men

B. they have to work to feed their men

C. are the mainstay of their families   

D. they have to amuse their men

Question 33: What women have done for the economic development have changed over time due to........

A. their role in the home    

B. the different factors of the society

C. the Industrial Revolution 

D. their marital status and their husbands

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word for each of the numbered blanks.

  My first job was a sales assistant at a large department store. I wanted to work part-time, because I was still studying at university and I was only able to work a few nights a week. I came across the advertisement in the local newspaper. I remember the interview as though it were yesterday. The ...(34)... manager sat behind a large desk. He asked me various questions which surprised me because all I wanted was to work in sales. An hours later, I was told that I had got the job and was given a contract to go over. I was to be trained for ten days before I took my post. Also, as a member of staff, I was ...(35)... to some benefits, including discounts.

  When I eventually started, I was responsible ...(36)... the toy section. I really enjoyed it there and I loved demonstrating the different toys. I was surprised at how friendly my colleagues were, too. They made working there fun even when we had to deal with customers ...(37)... got on our nerves. ...(38)..., working there was a great experience which I will never forget.

Question 34:

A. personnel

B. personal                             

C. personage                         

D. personable

Question 35:

A. given      

B. supplied                            

C. catered                             

D. entitled

Question 36:

A. in            

B. with                                   

C. for                                    

D. to

Question 37:

A. when      

B. why                                   

C. which                               

D. who

Question 38:

A. Moreover     

B. However                           

C. On the whole          

D. In contrast

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions from.

Question 39: When the Titanic started sinking, the passengers were.......

A. panic-stricken           

B. apprehensive                     

C. weather-beaten                 

D. horrifying

Question 40: This class,.....is a prerequisite for microbiology, is so difficult that I would rather drop it.

A. when                        

B. where                                

C. which                               

D. that

Question 41: Jack has a collection of........

A. valuable Japanese old postage stamps

B. old valuable Japanese postage stamps

C. old Japanese valuable postage stamps 

D. valuable old Japanese postage stamps

Question 42: Kate didn’t enjoy the roller coaster ride because it was......experience of her life.

A. a most terrified        

B. the most terrified              

C. far more terrifying            

D. the most terrifying

Question 43: By appearing on the soap powder commercials, she became a.......name.

A. house                        

B. housekeeper        

C. housewife      

D. household

Question 44: .......his poor English, he managed to communicate his problem very clearly.

A. Even though            

B. Because   

C. Because of     

D. In spite of

Question 45: During the campaign when Lincoln was first a(n)......for the Presidency, the slaves on the far-off plantations, miles from any railroad or large city or daily newspaper, knew what the issues involved were.

A. contestant                

B. candidate 

C. applicant       

D. competitor

Question 46: ~ Peter: "What........ your flight?" ~ Mary: "There was a big snowstorm in Birmingham that delayed a lot of flights."

A. hung up                    

B. delayed up                        

C. held up                             

D. postponed up

Question 47: I haven’t read any medical books or articles on the subject for a long time, so I’m.......with recent developments.

A. out of touch             

B. out of the question           

C. out of the condition         

D. out of reach

Question 48: Everyone in both cars.......injured in the accident last night, ......?

A. were - were they      

B. was - weren’t they       

C. were - weren’t they          

D. was - wasn’t he

Question 49: ~ Jenny: "Was Linda asleep when you came home?" ~ Jack: "No. She......TV."

A. was watching           

B. has been watching            

C. watched                           

D. had watched

Question 50: I assume that you are acquainted......this subject since you are responsible.......writing the accompanying materials.

A. to - to       

B. with - for       

C. to - for       

D. with – with

ĐÁP ÁN

1B	11C	21C	31C	41D
2A	12D	22D	32A	42D
3B	13B	23C	33B	43D
4C	14B	24D	34A	44D
5A	15A	25B	35A	45B
6D	16B	26B	36C	46C
7C	17D	27A	37D	47A
8D	18C	28B	38C	48B
9A	19D	29D	39A	49A
10C	20A	30D	40C	50B

Đề số 3

Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo .....

Đề khảo sát chất lượng Học kì 2

Năm học 2022 - 2023

Môn: Tiếng Anh 12

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

 Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fitseach of thenumbered blanks from 1 to 5.

SHE STUDIES WHILE HE PLAYS: TRUE OF CHILDREN AND CHIMPS

   Chimpanzees in the wild like to snack on termites, and youngsters learn to fish for them by pocking long sticks and other (1)……..tools into the mounds that large groups of termites build. Researchers found that (2)…………average female chimps in the Gombe National Park in Tanzania learnt how to do termite fishing at the age of 31 months, more than two years earlier than the males.

   The females seem to learn by watching mothers. Researcher Dr. Elisabeth V. Lonsdorf, director of field conservation at the Lincoln Park Zoo in Chicago, said that it is (3)………….to find that, when a young male and female are near a mound, ‘she’s really focusing on termite fishing and he’s spinning himself round (4)………..circles’. Dr Landsdorf and colleagues are studying chimpanzees at the zoo with a new, specially created termite mound, filled with mustard (5)…….than termites.

Question 1: 

A. relative   

B. similar   

C. close       

D. connected

Question 2:  

A. at          

B. by           

C. on                

D. for

Question 3:

A. typical      

B. regular           

C. ordinary     

D. frequent

 Question 4: 

A. in           

B. with               

C. to             

D. through

Question 5:

A. other        

B. else         

C. instead      

D. rather

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of thequestions from 6 to 12.

   Since water is the basis of life, composing the greater part of the tissues of all living things, the crucial problem of desert animals is to survive in a world where sources of flowing water are rare. And since man’s inexorable necessity is to absorb large quantities of water at frequent intervals, he can scarcely comprehend that many creatures of the desert pass their entire lives without a single drop

   Uncompromising as it is, the dessert has not eliminated life but only those forms unable to withstand its desiccating effects. No moist- skinned, water – loving animals can exist there. Few large animals are found: the giants of the North America desert are the deer, the coyote, and the bobcat. Since desert country is open, it holds more swift – footed, running, and leaping creatures than the tangled forest. Its populations are largely nocturnal, silent, filled with reticence, and ruled by stealth. Yet they are not emaciated. Having adapted to their austere environment, they are as healthy as animals anywhere in the world.

   The secret of their adjustment lies in a combination of behavior and physiology. None could survive if, like mad dogs and Englishmen, they went out in the midday sun; many would die in a matter of minutes. So most of them pass the burning hours asleep in cool, humid burrows underneath the ground, emerging to hunt only by night. The surface of the sun – baked desert averages around 150 degrees, but 18 inches down the temperature is only 60 degrees.

Question 6: What is the topic of the passage?

A. Life underground

B. Animal life in a desert environment

C. Desert plants

D. Man’s life in the desert

Question 7: The word “desiccating” means____.

A. humidifying

B. killing

C. drying

D. life threatening

Question 8: The phrase “those forms” refers to all of the following EXCEPT

A. water – loving animals

B. moist – skinned animals

C. many large animals

D. the bobcat

Question 9: The author states that one characteristic of animals that live in the desert is that they ____.

A. are less healthy than animals that live in different places

B. are smaller and fleeter than forest animals

C. can hunt in temperature of 150 degrees

D. live in an accommodating environment

Question 10: Which of the following generalizations are supported by the passage?

A. All living things adjust to their environments.

B. Healthy animals live longer lives.

C. Water is the basis of life.

D. Desert life is colorful.

Question 11: The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to____.

A. large animals

B. the forest animals

C. water – loving

D. the desert population.

Question 12: The author mentions all the following as examples of the behavior of desert animals EXCEPT

A. they dig home underground

B. they are noisy and aggressive

C. they are ready to hunt after sunset

D. they sleep during the day

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of thequestions from 13 to 20.

   Baseball evolved from a number of different ball-and stick games (paddle ball, trap ball, one-old-cat, rounders, and town ball) originating in England. As early as the American Revolution, it was noted that troops played “baseball” in their free time. In 1845 Alexander Cartwright formalized the New York Knickerbockers’ version of the game: a diamond shaped infield, with bases ninety feet apart, three strikers – you’re – out, batter out on a caught ball, three outs per inning , a nine man team. “The New York Game” spread rapidly, replacing earlier localized forms. From its beginnings, baseball was seen as a way of satisfying the recreational needs of an increasingly urban – industrial society. At its inception it was it was played by and for gentlemen. A club might consist of 40 members. The president would appoint two captains who would choose teams from among the members. Games were played on Monday and Thursday afternoons, with the losers often providing a lavish evening’s entertainments for the winners.

   During the 1850- 70 period the game was changing, however, with increasing commercialism (charging admission), under – the – table payments to exceptional to players, and gambling on the outcome of games. By 1868 it was said that a club would have their regular professional ten, an amateur first - nine, and their” muffins“ (the gently duffers who once ran the game) . Beginning with the first openly all – salaried team (Cincinnati’s Red Stocking Club) in 1869, the 1870- 1890 period saw the complete professionalization of baseball, including formation of the National Association of Professional baseball players in 1871. The National League of Professional Baseball Clubs was formed in 1876, run by business-minded invertors in joint-stock company clubs. The 1880s has been called Major League Baseball’s “Golden Age”. Profits soared, player’s salaries rose somewhat, a season of 84 games became one of 132, a weekly periodical “The sporting News” came into being, wooden stadiums with double-deck stands replaced open fields, and the standard refreshment became hot dogs, soda pop and peanuts. In 1900 the Western League based in the growing cities of the Mid-west proclaimed itself the American League.

Question 13: What is the passage mainly about?

A. the origin of baseball.

B. the influence of the “New York Game” on baseball

C. the commercialization of baseball.

D. the development of baseball in the nineteenth century

Question 14: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

A. the “New York “spread rapidly because it was better formalize.

B. hot dogs would not have become as popular as they did, without the professionalism and commercialism that develop in baseball.

C. the wealthy gentlemen who first played baseball, later needed to find another recreational opportunity if they did not want to mix with other or become a “muffin”.

D. business – minded investors were only interested in profits.

Question 15: The word “inception” in line 8 is closest in meaning to ____.

A. requirements

B. rules

C. insistence

D. beginning

Question 16: Which of the following is true of the way the game was played by wealthy gentlemen at its inception?

A. they didn’t play on weekend

B. the president would choose teams from among the members

C. a team might consist of 40 members

D. they might be called “duffers” if they didn’t make the first nine.

Question 17: According to the second paragraph, all of the following are true except____.

A. commercialism became more prosperous

B. the clubs are smaller

C. outstanding players got extra income

D. people gambled on the outcome of game

Question 18: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a feature of the 1880s “Golden Age”?

A. profits soared

B. a weekly periodical news

C. wooden stadiums replaced open fields

D. the National Association of Professional Baseball Players was formed.

Question 19: The word “itself” in line 24 refers to____.

A. the Western League

B. growing cities

C. the Midwest

D. the American League

Question 20: The word “lavish “in line 11 is closest in meaning to____.

A. very generous

B. prolonged

C. Grand

D. extensive

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answersheet to indicatethe word whose underlined part differs from theother three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 21:

A. requests       

B. calculates

C. questions     

D. attacks

Question 22:

A. civic       

B. service

C. fertile     

D. determine

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in theposition of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 23:

A. contribute     

B. dynamics

C. imagine         

D. devastate

Question 24:

A. habitat       

B. expansion

C. endanger     

D. agreement

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 25: Tom said that he was trying (A) to carry out some (B) campaigns (C) to protect environment and will encourage others (D) to do so.

Question 26: My elder (A) sisters, both of them (B) were doctors, said they were too busy (C) to pick (D) me up.

Question 27: Tropical (A) rain forests are founded (B) in a (C) belt around the Equator of (D) the Earth.

Question 28: It is very (A) difficult for (B) her to prevent (C) him for smoking (D) in her house.

Question 29: If we cannot save (A) the forests in their original (B) state, we must save enough (C) to preserve them as living burgeon ecosystem (D).

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 30: The students in class were made _____ very hard

A. learning     

B. learn

C. to learn     

D. having learnt

Question 31: ____ umbrella should not be used during ______ thunderstorm.

A. a/a      

B. the/a

C. an/a     

D. no article/ a

Question 32: I have had a toothache for one week but I still keep _____ going to the dentist.

A. put on       

B. taking off

C. take on     

D. putting off

Question 33: She hasn’t had a _____ week. She seems to have done nothing at all.

A. productive     

B. enthusiastic

C. economic       

D. extensive

Question 34: The police have not found the robbers yet and the bank robbery is still under ____

A. provision

B. investigation

C. explanation

D. division

Question 35:

A. the verge

B. a risk

C. a verge

D. stake

Question 36: The university ____ by private funds as well as by tuition income and grants.

A. supports

B. is supported

C. is supporting

D. has supported

Question 37: She always complained ___ her parents ___ how small her room was or how few clothes she had.

A. with/ for

B. with/about

C. to/ about

D. to/ for

Question 38: A native speaker of Spanish, for example, will __ to learn than a native speaker of Chinese

A. find Portuguese much easier

B. find that Portuguese is much easy

C. find Portuguese much easy

D. find Portuguese is much easier

Question 39: I couldn’t help ____ when I saw your face after making up.

A. to laugh.

B. for laughing

C. laughing

D. laughed

Question 40: When she _____ at the new dress for half part an hour, she asked how much it

A. have looked/cost

B. had looked/cost

C. has been looking/costed

D. looked/costs

ĐÁP ÁN

1B	2C	3A	4A	5D
6B	7C	8C	9B	10A
11D	12B	13D	14A	15D
16A	17C	18D	19A	20A
21C	22C	23D	24A	25C
26B	27B	28D	29D	30C
31C	32D	33A	34B	35A
36B	37C	38A	39C	40B

Đề số 4

Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo .....

Đề khảo sát chất lượng Học kì 2

Năm học 2022 - 2023

Môn: Tiếng Anh 12

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1:

A. needed       

B. decided

C. invented     

D. caused

Question 2:

A. bomb       

B. tomb

C. combat     

D. comment

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in theposition of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3:

A. university       

B. sociology

C. examination     

D. geographical

Question 4:

A. nature     

B. agricultural

C. forget      

D. begin

Mark the letter A, B C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 5: Paris is much (A) more exciting (B) as (C) I expected (D).

Question 6: English (A) is speaking (B) in many countries (C) in the world (D).

Question 7: Chemical engineering is based in (A) the principles (B) of physics, chemistry (C), and mathematics (D).

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 8: Lan likes music, _________?

A. doesn’t she     

B. does she

C. is she     

D. isn’t she

Question 9: If I ___ you, I would apply for that English course.

A. am       

B. were

C. had been     

D. is

Question 10: I decided _________ the dictionary you told me about.

A. bought     

B. buy

C. buying     

D. to buy

Question 11: Nowadays a large number of young people spend much time_________the Internet.

A. to surfing     

B. surfed

C. surfing       

D. to surf

Question 12: It was not until he failed the final examination _____ he realized how important the revision was.

A. that     

B. who

C. what     

D. and

Question 13: We will go out _________ the rain stops.

A. until     

B. during

C. while     

D. when

Question 14: He would not have been late for school if he _________ up early.

A. has got     

B. got

C. had got     

D. gets

Question 15: John lost the _________bicycle he bought last week and his parents were very angry with him because of his carelessness .

A. Japanese beautiful new blue

B. new beautiful blue Japanese

C. beautiful Japanese blue new

D. beautiful new blue Japanese

Question 16: _________you pass a chemist’s, will you get me some aspirins?.

A. Did       

B. Should

C. Would     

D. Had

Question 17: Did you arrive at the station on time? – No, I missed 5 o’clock train; _________ the was an other one after 5 minutes.

A. Thus         

B. Also

C. However     

D. Besides

Question 18: Hardly _________ when the argument begins.

A. when he arrived

B. he had arrived

C. than he arrived

D. had he arrived

Question 19: The film was really boring. It was _________ I’ve seen.

A. the most boring film

B. most boring film

C. the more boring film

D. the film more boring

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 20: - “Would you like something to eat?” - “ ______ . I am not hungry now.”

A. No, thanks

B. Good idea, thanks

C. Thanks, I will

D. Yes, I would

Question 21: Mary (on the phone) : “Could I speak to Susan?” - Susan : “ _________!”

A. Talking

B. Calling

C. Answering

D. Speaking

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSET in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22: The cultural and historical sites in Kyoto have been given appropriate care and maintenance.

A. preservation

B. revival

C. recovery

D. recognition

Question 23: Our parents join hands to give us a nice house and a happy home.

A. make decisions

B. put together

C. take each other’s hands

D. work together

Question 24: Shooling is compulsory for all English children from age 5 to 16.

A. free

B. optional

C. constructive

D. beneficial

Question 25: The original World Cup trophy was given permanently to Brazil to honor that country’s record third World Cup title in 1970.

A. for good

B. lastingly

C. for age

D. temporarily

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 26: “I will help you with the housework”, Mai said.

A. Mai promised to help me with the housework.

B. Mai asked me to help her with the housework.

C. Mai begged to help me with the housework.

D. Mai insisted on helping me with the housework.

Question 27: They couldn’t go swimming because of the cold weather.

A. The cold weather made it impossible to go swimming.

B. The cold weather prevented them from going swimming

C. Their going swimming was unable due to the cold weather.

D. The cold weather made it not capable of going swimming.

Question 28: I can’t help feeling worried about David.

A. I find it impossible not to worry about David.

B. I don’t worry about David.

C. I can do nothing to help David.

D. I cannot help David stop worrying.

Question 29: A waitress served us. She was very impolite and impatient.

A. A waitress, who served us, was very impolite and impatient.

B. A waitress, which served us, was very impolite and impatient.

C. A waitress who served us was very impolite and impatient.

D. A waitress whom served us, was very impolite and impatient.

Question 30: He was successful because he was determined to purse personal goals. He was not talented.

A. It was his determination to purse personal goals, not talent, that contributed to his success.

B. In addition to his determination, his talent ensured his success in pursing his goals.

C. His success lay in his natural ability, not his determination to purse personal goals.

D. His determination to purse personal goals made him successful and talented.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.

   Always arrive early. If you do not know (31) _____ the organization is located, call for exact directions (32) ___ advance. Leave some extra time for any traffic, parking, or unexpected events. If you are running late, call right away and let someone know. The best time to arrive is approximately 5 - 10 minutes early. Give yourself the time to read your resume one more time, to catch your breath, and to be ready for the interview. Once you are at the office, treat everyone you encounter with respect. Be (33) _____ to everyone as soon as you walk in the door. Wear a professional business suit. This point should be emphasized enough. First (34) ____ are extremely important in the interview process. Women should (35) _____ wearing too much jewelry or make up. Men should avoid flashy suits or wearing too much perfume. It is also important that you feel comfortable. While a suit is the standard interview attire in a business environment, if you think it is an informal environment, call before and ask. Regardless, you can never be overdressed if you are wearing a tailored suit.

Question 31:

A. when       

B. why

C. where     

D. that

Question 32:

A. with     

B. in

C. on       

D. for

Question 33:

A. happy           

B. pleasant

C. disappointed     

D. excited

Question 34:

A. attendances     

B. attentions

C. impressions     

D. pressures

Question 35:

A. avoid     

B. suggest

C. enjoy     

D. mind

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

   Over the past 600 years, English has grown from a language of few speakers to become the dominant language of international communication. English as we know it today emerged around 1350, after having incorporated many elements of French that were introduced following the Norman invasion of 1066. Until the 1600s, English was, for the most part, spoken only in England and had not extended even as far as two centuries, English began to spread around the globe as a result of exploration, trade (including slave trade), colonization, and missionary work. Thus, small enclaves of English speakers became established and grew in various parts of the world. As these communities proliferated, English gradually became the primary language of international business, banking and diplomacy.

   Currently, about 80 percent of the information stored on computer systems worldwide is English. Two thirds of the world’s science writing is in English, and English is the main language of technology, advertising, media, international airports, and air traffic controllers. Today there are more than 700 million English users in the world, and over half of these are nonnative speakers, constituting the largest number of non-native users than any other language in the world..

Question 36: What is the main topic of this passage?

A. The number of non-native users of English.

B. The French influence on the English Language.

C. The expansion of English as an international language.

D. The use of English for science and technology.

Question 37: In the first paragraph, the word “emerged” is closest in meaning to____.

A. appeared

B. disappeared

C. frequented

D. engaged

Question 38: In the first paragraph, the word “elements” is closest in meaning to____.

A. declaration

B. features

C. curiosities

D. customs

Question 39: Approximately when did English begin to be used beyond England?

A. In 1066

B. around 1350

C. before 1600

D. after 1600

Question 40: According to the passage, all of the following contributed to the spread of English around the world _________

A. the slave trade

B. the Norman invasion

C. missionaries

D. colonization

ĐÁP ÁN

1D	2B	3C	4A	5C
6B	7A	8A	9B	10D
11C	12A	13D	14C	15D
16B	17C	18D	19A	20A
21D	22C	23D	24B	25D
26A	27B	28A	29A	30C
31C	32B	33B	34C	35A
36C	37A	38B	39D	40B

Đề số 5

Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo .....

Đề khảo sát chất lượng Học kì 2

Năm học 2022 - 2023

Môn: Tiếng Anh 12

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

A. Phần Trắc Nghệm

Question 1: Choose one best option to complete this sentence by circling the corresponding letter A, B, C, D.

- "Passport, please." “                       ”

A.  What is it?                

B. Yes.                          

C. Could I go now?      

D. Here it is.

Question 2: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the words whose underlined part is pronounced differently.

A. days                         

B. lands                         

C. bags                          

D. graphs

Question 3: Choose one best option to complete this sentence by circling the corresponding letter A, B, C, D.

Don't  make  plan  for  Tuesday because we                     leave in the morning. I'll let you know tonight.

A. can                           

B. must                         

C. would                       

D. may

Question 4: Choose one best option to complete this sentence by circling the corresponding letter A, B, C, D.

-  "Happy birthday! This is a small present for you." - “                         ”

A. What a pity!  

B. How beautiful it is! Thanks.

C. Have a good time!  

D. How terrible!

Read the passage and choose the best answer (A or B, C, D) from 5 to 14.

   If you can roll a ball, you can play bowls. Everyone can play: young and old, men and women, the fit  and the not so fit. It  is the (5)                       outdoor game that really is a sport for all. What other sports can grandparents play on equal terms with their grandchildren? What other game is so simple that  you could take  up  it  today  and  be  (6)  in  the  national  championship  tomorrow?  Simple? Perhaps that is not the (7)         word. There are bowls players in their thousands (8)          will tell   you that, although bowls is a game that anyone can (9) in five minutes, it takes a lifetime to (10)              it. They are the people  who  have  developed  a  passionate  interest  in  the  game.  (11) for outsiders, bowls is another world, and a strange and puzzling one. They see a bowl game in action and wonder what is going on.

   What the players are trying to do is easy to explain. Their (12)   is to roll their bowls, called   wood, as near as possible to the little white ball, called the jack. If one of your bowls finishes nearer  to the jack than your opponent's, you score one point and he or she scores (13)     . If you have the  two nearest, you score two, and so on. The skill involved in rolling a bowl that weighs around 2 kilos across about 40 meters so that it stops  only  a  very  short  (14)  from  the  target  is  just  as impressive as the skills required in other sports.

Question 5:    

A. special       

B. one                     

C. individual        

D. alone

Question 6:    

A. going         

B. taking                 

C. entering           

D. competing

Question 7:    

A. just            

B. genuine               

C. right                 

D. suitable

Question 8:    

A. whose        

B. when                  

C. which               

D. who

Question 9:    

A. pick up      

B. catch on              

C. find out           

D. see through

Question 10:  

A. master        

B. tame                   

C. control             

D. manage

Question 11:  

A. Although   

B. However            

C. Unlike              

D. Besides

Question 12:  

A. attempt      

B. point                   

C. aim                   

D. scheme

Question 13:  

A. nothing      

B. something           

C. anything          

D. everything

Question 14:  

A. extent        

B. length                 

C. distance           

D. range

Question 15: Choose the one word or phrase that needs correction by circling letter A,  B, C, or D.

Renewable(A) energy sources are not use(B) up when(C) the energy is exploited(D).

Question 16: Choose one best option to complete this sentence by circling the corresponding letter A, B, C, D.

Peter often drives a                             .

A.  little Japanese red car                                      B. little red Japanese car

C. red little Japanese car                                      D. Japanese little red car

Read the passage and choose the best answer (A or B, C, D) from 17 to 21.

All around the world, there are many endangered animals, largely because of human progress. As the world's population grows, humans move into new areas, create more pollution, and use more natural resources. This all puts pressure on animals, which cannot really compete with humans. An excellent example of this would be the case of the leatherback sea turtle.

At 6.5 meters long, and up to 600 kilograms, the leatherback is the largest turtle on Earth. It is also one of the most endangered. Scientists do not know the exact number of leatherbacks because they spend their entire lives at sea. This makes them very difficult to count. But female leatherbacks come on land to lay their eggs. From the number of nests that scientists find, they can estimate the number of turtles. The numbers do not show a good future for the leatherback. At one beach, scientists counted over 10,000 egg nests in 1954. In 1993, there were only 50 nests at the same beach. Scientists think that the leatherback population is perhaps only 1% of what it was just 50 years ago. Human development over the last 50 years is undoubtedly the reason for this.

Humans affect leatherbacks in many ways. Many of the beaches leatherbacks used to lay their eggs at are now covered with hotels and resorts, so there are few places for the turtles to make their nests. In addition, in many parts of the world, people eat the turtle eggs. At one beach in Mexico, almost 100% of all the leatherback nests were dug up and the eggs eaten by humans. The turtles also get caught in fishing nets and die. In the 1950s, there were 5,000 fishing boats in the Gulf of Mexico, a common spot for leatherbacks. Now there are over 55,000 fishing boats in the same area. If the situation does not change soon, the leatherback may disappear forever.

Question 17: As used in the passage, the term endangered animals can best be explained as                    .

A. animals in areas where humans live 

B. animals with very low numbers

C. a kind of turtle

D. animals caught in fishing nets

Question 18: According to paragraph 1, humans pressure animals in all of the following ways EXCEPT                                 .

A. by killing the animals          

B. by using natural resources

C. by moving into new areas 

D. by adding to pollution

Question 19: According to paragraph 2, why is it difficult to count the numbers of leatherback turtles?

A. Their nests are hard to find.

B. They live most of their lives in the sea.

C. They are scared of humans.

D. They swim very fast.

Question 20: According to the passage, how do hotels and resorts hurt leatherback turtles?

A.  People at the hotels go fishing and eat the turtle eggs.

B.  They pollute the beaches and kill the leatherbacks.

C.  They occupy the beaches where the turtles lay their eggs.

D.  They bring more people to the beaches to see the animal.

Question 21: The author mentions fishing boats in order to             .

A.  show that fishing is becoming more popular in the Gulf of Mexico

B.  suggest that the Gulf of Mexico is a good place to catch leatherback turtles

C.  suggest a connection between the rise in fishing and the fall in leatherback turtles

D.  explain why there are no leatherback turtles in the Gulf of Mexico

Question 22: Choose one best option to complete this sentence by circling the corresponding letter A, B, C, D.

Remember               some presents for Mum on her birthday, Dad.

A. buying                      

B. to buy                       

C. and buy                    

D. and buying

Question 23: Choose the one word or phrase that needs correction by circling letter A,  B, C, or D.

The number(A) of the Asian Games(B) participants (C) have been increasing(D).

Question 24: Choose one best option to complete this sentence by circling the corresponding letter A, B, C, D.

Do you mind                        ?

A. if I borrow your skateboard     

B. borrowing your skateboard

C. if borrowing your skateboard

D. if your skateboard borrowed

Question 25: Choose the word whose main stress is placed differently from the others.

A. legend                      

B. around                      

C. question                    

D. special

Question 26: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the words whose underlined part is pronounced differently.

A. installed                   

B. survived                  

C. required                    

D. rejected

Question 27: Choose one best option to complete this sentence by circling the corresponding letter A, B, C, D.

-  "You look nice in that red shirt." – “                ”

A. It's nice of you to say so.

B. Am I? Thanks.

C. Oh, poor me.   

D. I am interesting to hear that.

Question 28: Choose one best option to complete this sentence by circling the corresponding letter A, B, C, D.

Everyone is aware                the danger of overcrowded population.

A. to                              

B. from                         

C. with                          

D. of

Question 29: Choose one best option to complete this sentence by circling the corresponding letter A, B, C, D.

I like Tom and Ann. They are                                            .

A. such nice people       

B. such a nice people    

C. such as nice people

D. such nice peoples

Question 30: Choose one best option to complete this sentence by circling the corresponding letter A, B, C, D.

This school is only for children              first language is not English.

A. whose                       

B. who is                       

C. who                          

D. of whom

Question 31: Choose one best option to complete this sentence by circling the corresponding letter A, B, C, D.

Did you remember anything                      at the party?

A. interestive                

B. interested                 

C. interesting                

D. interests

Question 32: Choose one best option to complete this sentence by circling the corresponding letter A, B, C, D.

You will not achieve anything                       you take risks.

A.  if                              

B. when                        

C. unless                       

D. that

B. Phần tự luận

Question 33: Rewrite the sentence with similar meaning using the suggested words

If I were you I'd look for another job.

I suggest ……………………………………………..……………………

Question 34: Rewrite the sentence with similar meaning using the suggested words

They saw the children play football in the street.

The children ……………………………………………….………………............

Question 35-40: In 80-100 words, write a paragraph about the benefits of reading books.

ĐÁP ÁN

1.	D	9.	A	17.	B	25.	B
2.	D	10.	A	18.	A	26.	D
3.	D	11.	B	19.	B	27.	A
4.	B	12.	C	20.	C	28.	D
5.	C	13.	A	21.	C	29.	A
6.	D	14.	C	22.	B	30.	A
7.	C	15.	B	23.	D	31.	C
8.	D	16.	B	24.	A	32.	C

33.  I suggest you (should) look for another job.

34. The children were seen to play football in the street.

35-40: The paragraph should be from 80 to 100 words and include:

-  The benefits of reading book

-  Coherence and Cohesion

MA TRẬN ĐỀ THI CUỐI HỌC KÌ II – MÔN TIẾNG ANH 12  

Topics	Recognition	Comprehension	Application		Total
			Low level	Advanced level
I. Pronunciation PART 1: Find the word which is pronounced differently in the part underlined. (0,5 point) PART 2: Find the word with a stress pattern that is different from the others (0,5 point)	-   1 sentence ( 0.25 point)   -   1 sentence ( 0.25 point)		- 1 sentence ( 0.25 point)	- 1 sentence ( 0.25 point)	1.0 point
II. Vocabulary& grammar PART 1: Choose the best answer A, B, C or D to complete each of the following sentences (14 sentences) ( 3,5 points) PART 2: Choose the underlined part that needs correcting to complete each of the following sentences (2 sentences) (0,5 points) PART 3: Choose the word closest in meaning to complete each of the following sentences (2 sentences) (0,5 points) PART 4: Choose the word closest in meaning to complete each of the following sentences (2 sentences) (0,5 points) PART 5: Choose the word opposite in meaning to complete each of the following sentences (2 sentences) (0,5 points) PART 6: Choose the sentences closest in meaning to the following sentences (2 sentences) (0,5 points) PART 7: Choose the sentences that best combines each pair of the following sentences (2 sentences) (0,5 points) PART 8: Choose that best completes each of the following exchanges (2 sentences) (0,5 points)	- 8 sentences ( 2,0 point)     -   1 sentence ( 0.25 point)   -   1 sentence ( 0.25 point)   -   1 sentence ( 0.25 point)   -   1 sentence ( 0.25 point)   -   1 sentence ( 0.25 point)   -   1 sentence ( 0.25 point)   -   1 sentence ( 0.25 point)	2 sentences ( 0,5point)         -   1 sentence ( 0.25 point)       -   1 sentence ( 0.25 point)	-     2 sentences ( 0,5point) -             -   1 sentence ( 0.25 point)       -   1 sentence ( 0.25 point)         -   1 sentence ( 0.25 point)	-2 sentences ( 0,5point)     -   1 sentence ( 025 point)                         -   1 sentence ( 0.25 point)	3,5 points     0,5 points     0,5 points     0,5 points   0,5 points     0,5 points     0,5 points     0,5 points
II. Reading Read the passage and choose the best answer A, B, C or D(10 sentences) (2,5 points)	- 4 sentence ( 1,0 point)	- 4 sentences ( 1,0 point)	- 1 sentence ( 0.25 point)	- 1 sentence ( 0.25 point)	2,5 points
Total:	10 points